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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 19

Question 180

An application claims to maintain a trusted financial ledger even when external public data can be submitted. What test BEST demonstrates its Biba-aligned integrity boundary?

  1. A classified analyst is stopped from emailing SECRET material to an unclassified address.
  2. Unendorsed low-integrity changes are rejected; the same data enters the ledger only after a documented authorized validation/endorsement step.
  3. The public source can post any invoice directly because HTTPS was used.
  4. The ledger is backed up nightly, but test values are not compared against a trusted source.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

This negative-and-positive test shows both enforced integrity separation and a controlled path for legitimate lower-trust inputs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

That is a confidentiality no-write-down test and does not prove ledger integrity or feed validation.

C:

Transport security cannot substitute for a trusted data-endorsement decision before high-integrity updates.

D:

A backup captures state, including potentially corrupted state, and cannot alone prove transactional integrity.

Question 181

An accounting application permits operators to modify ledger balances directly, bypassing validated transaction procedures. Which integrity design is MOST appropriate?

  1. Enforce Clark-Wilson-style constrained data items through authorized transformation procedures and separation of duties.
  2. Apply only Bell-LaPadula no-write-down rules to the ledger.
  3. Encrypt the disk while allowing unrestricted direct balance writes.
  4. Permit balance edits when any employee knows the shared admin password.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Certified procedures and distinct roles preserve accounting invariants across state changes.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Confidentiality-oriented information flow does not impose valid accounting transformations.

C:

At-rest confidentiality cannot prevent authorized misuse of business-state updates.

D:

Shared access defeats role separation and traceable valid transactions.

Question 182

The ledger now requires certified transaction functions. What limitation still needs review?

  1. Encryption keys must be destroyed after every approved transaction.
  2. A certified procedure may omit a business invariant or allow one person to initiate and approve conflicting steps.
  3. Confidentiality labels must always be higher for transactions than for audit logs.
  4. Certification eliminates the need to monitor changes to approved transaction code.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Enforcement alone is insufficient if validation rules or role separation are flawed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Deleting all keys is neither a Clark-Wilson invariant nor a typical transaction requirement.

C:

Label hierarchy is not the central problem of valid transformations and duties.

D:

A subsequently altered procedure can invalidate previous certification assumptions.

Question 183

Which audit test BEST demonstrates controlled ledger integrity?

  1. Check that an encrypted backup exists.
  2. Verify staff can read the ledger from a trusted workstation.
  3. Attempt unauthorized direct balance edits and conflicting dual-approval steps; verify denial and reconciled invariants.
  4. Check the database server has a current TLS certificate.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Negative tests and reconciliation demonstrate procedure mediation and separation of duties.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backup encryption does not prove online ledger updates use valid procedures.

B:

Read availability does not establish transaction integrity or approval separation.

D:

Transport identity does not validate business state or transformation procedures.

Question 184

A system audit assumes every application library is part of the trusted computing base and never examines kernel reference-monitor bypass. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Include every optional application component in the trusted computing base without identifying actual policy enforcement.
  2. Rely solely on an application login screen while kernel interfaces can bypass reference-monitor checks.
  3. Identify and minimize components whose failure can violate the security policy, and test complete mediation.
  4. Prove the processor is fast and assume the policy reference monitor is tamper-proof.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

TCB assurance concerns the enforcement mechanisms upon which security depends. Formally small mechanisms still require implementation and configuration review for correctness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Making the TCB arbitrarily broad hides which privileged components must enforce security.

B:

A UI gate cannot assure complete mediation when lower-level access paths are unchecked.

D:

Performance benchmarks do not address protected, verifiable mediation of every access.

Question 185

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A system audit assumes every application library is part of the trusted computing base and never examines kernel reference-monitor bypass. The approved response was: Identify and minimize components whose failure can violate the security policy, and test complete mediation. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A very small security kernel is correct by definition even if implementation flaws exist.
  2. Formally small mechanisms still require implementation and configuration review for correctness.
  3. Access-control decisions at one front-end entry point suffice even when other paths bypass the monitor.
  4. Any library loaded into an application is automatically part of the TCB regardless of security dependencies.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

TCB assurance concerns the enforcement mechanisms upon which security depends. Untrusted application code cannot bypass the protected access decision enforcement path.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A small TCB reduces assurance scope but still needs rigorous testing and configuration review.

C:

Reference monitoring must consistently mediate all protected object access.

D:

The TCB is defined by components necessary to enforce policy, not simply what executes.

Question 186

Management implemented a response after this event: A system audit assumes every application library is part of the trusted computing base and never examines kernel reference-monitor bypass. The response was: Identify and minimize components whose failure can violate the security policy, and test complete mediation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The application home page requires login, but a direct system-call route reads protected objects.
  2. The TCB inventory lists every application module without testing policy-bypass paths.
  3. Unit tests pass for normal requests, but an untrusted process can circumvent the reference monitor.
  4. Untrusted application code cannot bypass the protected access decision enforcement path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Untrusted application code cannot bypass the protected access decision enforcement path. TCB assurance concerns the enforcement mechanisms upon which security depends.

Incorrect Answers

A:

UI authentication does not demonstrate complete trusted enforcement.

B:

A large list is not evidence of correctly identified or enforced security boundaries.

C:

Positive functional tests do not prove mandatory mediation of adversarial paths.

Question 187

An encrypted laptop stores its startup unlock secret in a script that releases the secret even after bootloader tampering. What is the BEST design fix?

  1. Store the unlock secret as base64 text on the boot partition.
  2. Seal key release to approved measured boot state using TPM-backed protection and a controlled recovery path.
  3. Add only an operating-system login password after the disk has unlocked.
  4. Trust any signed bootloader without checking the intended measurement policy.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Measured-state binding withholds protected secrets when important boot components change unexpectedly.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encoding is not secret protection and does not bind release to trusted boot measurements.

C:

Post-boot login protection does not prevent pre-boot key disclosure from the script.

D:

A valid signature alone may not establish the approved configured boot state used for key release.

Question 188

A TPM-sealed key releases only under approved boot measurements. What security risk is NOT eliminated?

  1. A changed bootloader should never alter any measurement.
  2. An operating-system exploit becomes impossible whenever TPM hardware is present.
  3. A physically stolen powered-off device must always reveal the sealed key without checks.
  4. Malware active after a legitimate boot may steal credentials or data accessible in the running session.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

TPM measurements protect key-release conditions, not all post-boot execution state.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Measured boot is intended to reflect relevant component changes.

B:

Hardware trust is not a universal immunity guarantee against runtime vulnerabilities.

C:

Sealing is intended to restrict unauthorized release under altered or unapproved state.

Question 189

What test BEST demonstrates that TPM measurement-bound disk unlock works?

  1. Confirm the TPM appears in the asset inventory.
  2. Benchmark disk write throughput before and after encryption.
  3. Modify a measured boot component and verify ordinary key release is denied while documented recovery can be authorized.
  4. Show that an authorized user can unlock after a normal boot only.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A tampering attempt tests the precise trust condition and safe recovery procedure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Inventory presence does not show correct key sealing or policy measurements.

B:

Performance cannot establish resistance to altered boot code.

D:

Normal success is necessary but misses the adverse state the control should reject.

Question 190

Application developers can export signing private keys from a regular filesystem after completing a CI deployment. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Store release signing keys encrypted on a shared build-server filesystem where CI roles hold the decrypt password.
  2. Publish the signing public key and assume that prevents private-key extraction by developers.
  3. Keep sensitive signing keys in access-controlled HSM-backed nonexportable operations with independent administration.
  4. Move private keys into an ordinary shared secret variable available to every test job.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protected key generation and sign operations reduce theft through ordinary build accounts. Compromised authorized signers can still request bad signatures; approval workflows matter.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Build administrators can export the private material and bypass signing trust boundaries.

B:

Public-key distribution does not secure the corresponding private signing key.

D:

A secret variable accessible to untrusted builds is still exportable signing material.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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