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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 21

Question 200

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A plant's programmable controller cannot be restarted safely during production, but IT schedules an automatic firmware update. The approved response was: Use safety-engineered maintenance planning and segmented compensating controls with approved vendor procedures. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Air-gapping the plant automatically removes all safety and cybersecurity monitoring requirements.
  2. An isolated plant still needs monitoring and a tested emergency shutdown procedure.
  3. An urgent CVE always takes priority over established human-safety and process-control procedures.
  4. A planned patch window guarantees a safe upgrade even when equipment rollback and failure state are untested.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OT availability and human safety constraints change acceptable patch methods and timing. A dry-run change plan demonstrates safe state, rollback and approved maintenance window.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Even segregated OT systems need monitoring, controlled access and tested safe shutdown.

C:

Patching priorities must account for industrial hazard and safe maintenance constraints.

D:

Safety-engineered procedures need rehearsed failure handling and vendor compatibility checks.

Question 201

Management implemented a response after this event: A plant's programmable controller cannot be restarted safely during production, but IT schedules an automatic firmware update. The response was: Use safety-engineered maintenance planning and segmented compensating controls with approved vendor procedures. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The patch manager reports deployment success while the plant controller enters an uncontrolled state.
  2. A maintenance plan lists the vendor firmware but contains no dry-run, safe-state or rollback evidence.
  3. Network access is restricted, but the operator has never tested emergency shutdown after the change.
  4. A dry-run change plan demonstrates safe state, rollback and approved maintenance window.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A dry-run change plan demonstrates safe state, rollback and approved maintenance window. OT availability and human safety constraints change acceptable patch methods and timing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Administrative success is not a safe operational outcome.

B:

A version number alone cannot substantiate process-safe patching.

C:

Segmentation cannot prove plant safety during a critical failure.

Question 202

An IaaS tenant assumes the cloud provider automatically patches its custom guest OS and application packages. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Assign guest OS and workload patching to the tenant while verifying provider infrastructure responsibility.
  2. Ask the IaaS vendor to patch the customer’s custom guest packages without assigning tenant staff.
  3. Treat the provider’s audit certificate as proof every customer application dependency is current.
  4. Patch only the underlying virtual host and ignore unmaintained packages inside the guest operating system.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Shared responsibility differs by service model; IaaS tenants retain control of hosted software. The provider's assurance report does not prove customer workload hardening or IAM configuration.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Infrastructure service agreements do not automatically include customer OS and application maintenance.

C:

Provider controls do not attest the configuration of tenant-installed workload software.

D:

Host patching cannot remove customer guest software vulnerabilities.

Question 203

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An IaaS tenant assumes the cloud provider automatically patches its custom guest OS and application packages. The approved response was: Assign guest OS and workload patching to the tenant while verifying provider infrastructure responsibility. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. An IaaS provider’s SOC report covers every customer-created account and patch decision.
  2. Because servers are virtual, the customer has no role in operating-system patching.
  3. The provider's assurance report does not prove customer workload hardening or IAM configuration.
  4. An infrastructure availability SLA proves the customer’s custom applications are securely configured.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Shared responsibility differs by service model; IaaS tenants retain control of hosted software. A signed responsibility matrix and patch audit show guest vulnerabilities are owned and remediated.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Customer IAM and guest operating systems remain distinct responsibility boundaries.

B:

Virtualization does not automatically turn customer-managed IaaS guests into managed SaaS software.

D:

Availability of the underlying service is not an assurance of workload hardening.

Question 204

Management implemented a response after this event: An IaaS tenant assumes the cloud provider automatically patches its custom guest OS and application packages. The response was: Assign guest OS and workload patching to the tenant while verifying provider infrastructure responsibility. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The IaaS control-plane uptime is high, but customer guest images contain overdue critical patches.
  2. A signed responsibility matrix and patch audit show guest vulnerabilities are owned and remediated.
  3. The provider publishes a security report while the customer has no guest vulnerability inventory or patch owner.
  4. The virtual host is patched but an authenticated scan still finds an exploitable guest library.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A signed responsibility matrix and patch audit show guest vulnerabilities are owned and remediated. Shared responsibility differs by service model; IaaS tenants retain control of hosted software.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Provider availability does not demonstrate customer maintenance.

C:

Supplier evidence does not substitute for tenant-side assurance.

D:

Host patch levels cannot verify remediation inside the customer environment.

Question 205

Field devices accept arbitrary firmware downloaded over HTTPS because transport encryption is mistaken for publisher trust. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Accept arbitrary firmware downloaded via HTTPS because TLS already proves the update publisher identity.
  2. Require authenticated signed firmware, anti-rollback policy and verified update authorization.
  3. Validate only a file checksum published on the same compromised download page.
  4. Permit signed downgrades to known vulnerable firmware without version or revocation constraints.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Transport security protects delivery but does not prove firmware image publisher authenticity. Compromised signing keys can authorize malicious updates, so revocation and recovery matter.

Incorrect Answers

A:

TLS protects the delivery connection but does not bind the firmware bytes to an authorized signing authority.

C:

A same-source unsigned checksum can be replaced alongside a malicious firmware image.

D:

Signature authenticity alone does not prevent replay of outdated unsafe releases.

Question 206

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Field devices accept arbitrary firmware downloaded over HTTPS because transport encryption is mistaken for publisher trust. The approved response was: Require authenticated signed firmware, anti-rollback policy and verified update authorization. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A signed firmware package remains safe forever even when its signing key is stolen.
  2. Compromised signing keys can authorize malicious updates, so revocation and recovery matter.
  3. Encrypted transport automatically blocks a valid but maliciously signed older image.
  4. Checking a download domain’s TLS certificate proves the firmware image has passed manufacturer security approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Transport security protects delivery but does not prove firmware image publisher authenticity. Tampered or downgraded firmware is rejected while current approved images install.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Compromised authorized keys require revocation, replacement and recovery processes.

C:

Network encryption cannot enforce monotonic version or anti-rollback policy.

D:

Server authentication is distinct from authenticated software release provenance.

Question 207

Management implemented a response after this event: Field devices accept arbitrary firmware downloaded over HTTPS because transport encryption is mistaken for publisher trust. The response was: Require authenticated signed firmware, anti-rollback policy and verified update authorization. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A device accepts a deliberately modified firmware image because the delivery URL has trusted TLS.
  2. Normal current firmware installs, but an old vulnerable signed image also installs without policy checks.
  3. Update traffic is encrypted while the installer cannot distinguish approved and attacker-signed packages.
  4. Tampered or downgraded firmware is rejected while current approved images install.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Tampered or downgraded firmware is rejected while current approved images install. Transport security protects delivery but does not prove firmware image publisher authenticity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transport encryption is not publisher-authenticated firmware verification.

B:

A successful happy-path update does not demonstrate anti-rollback enforcement.

C:

Confidential delivery alone does not verify trusted release identity.

Question 208

A storage team proposes RSA encryption of every byte of multi-terabyte backups for performance and key management. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Encrypt terabyte backups using a raw RSA operation on every data block.
  2. Use an unkeyed checksum as the only integrity mechanism while storing backups as readable plaintext.
  3. Reuse the same authenticated-encryption nonce and symmetric key for every backup chunk.
  4. Use suitable symmetric authenticated bulk encryption and protect small data keys with an authorized key-management mechanism.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Symmetric cryptography efficiently handles large data; asymmetric operations are suited to limited-size key exchange/signatures. Nonce reuse or exposed data keys can defeat otherwise strong encryption algorithms.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Asymmetric encryption is unsuitable for efficient authenticated bulk-data processing.

B:

A checksum lacks confidentiality and an attacker can replace both data and unprotected checksum.

C:

Nonce reuse can destroy confidentiality or integrity guarantees of common AEAD designs.

Question 209

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A storage team proposes RSA encryption of every byte of multi-terabyte backups for performance and key management. The approved response was: Use suitable symmetric authenticated bulk encryption and protect small data keys with an authorized key-management mechanism. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Strong AES automatically prevents disclosure even if its data-encryption keys are publicly readable.
  2. Authenticated encryption cannot be weakened by reusing nonces because the underlying cipher remains strong.
  3. A protected wrapping key is unnecessary once a symmetric data key has been created for a backup.
  4. Nonce reuse or exposed data keys can defeat otherwise strong encryption algorithms.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Symmetric cryptography efficiently handles large data; asymmetric operations are suited to limited-size key exchange/signatures. Large backups encrypt and decrypt efficiently and altered ciphertext is detected.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption does not survive loss of secrecy for effective decrypt keys.

B:

Some AEAD schemes have critical security failures under nonce reuse.

C:

Key lifecycle and access control determine who can decrypt the bulk ciphertext.

Question 210

Management implemented a response after this event: A storage team proposes RSA encryption of every byte of multi-terabyte backups for performance and key management. The response was: Use suitable symmetric authenticated bulk encryption and protect small data keys with an authorized key-management mechanism. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Backups encrypt quickly but modified ciphertext decrypts as apparently valid without integrity verification.
  2. Large backups encrypt and decrypt efficiently and altered ciphertext is detected.
  3. The key vault stores all decrypt keys under an unrestricted administrator role.
  4. A backup compression ratio is acceptable, but no tampering or restoration test has been conducted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Large backups encrypt and decrypt efficiently and altered ciphertext is detected. Symmetric cryptography efficiently handles large data; asymmetric operations are suited to limited-size key exchange/signatures.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Performance alone is not authenticated confidentiality and alteration detection.

C:

Encrypted backup bytes do not demonstrate protected key custody.

D:

Compression statistics cannot establish correct cryptographic operation or recoverability.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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