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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 20

Question 190

Application developers can export signing private keys from a regular filesystem after completing a CI deployment. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Store release signing keys encrypted on a shared build-server filesystem where CI roles hold the decrypt password.
  2. Publish the signing public key and assume that prevents private-key extraction by developers.
  3. Keep sensitive signing keys in access-controlled HSM-backed nonexportable operations with independent administration.
  4. Move private keys into an ordinary shared secret variable available to every test job.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protected key generation and sign operations reduce theft through ordinary build accounts. Compromised authorized signers can still request bad signatures; approval workflows matter.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Build administrators can export the private material and bypass signing trust boundaries.

B:

Public-key distribution does not secure the corresponding private signing key.

D:

A secret variable accessible to untrusted builds is still exportable signing material.

Question 191

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Application developers can export signing private keys from a regular filesystem after completing a CI deployment. The approved response was: Keep sensitive signing keys in access-controlled HSM-backed nonexportable operations with independent administration. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Nonexportable HSM keys prevent a compromised authorized signer from requesting malicious signatures.
  2. Keeping the private key in a hardware module eliminates the need for approval and separation of duties.
  3. Compromised authorized signers can still request bad signatures; approval workflows matter.
  4. Signing-key encryption guarantees protection if the decrypting CI job has broad access to the secret.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protected key generation and sign operations reduce theft through ordinary build accounts. A developer can submit authorized signing requests but cannot extract private key material.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An attacker with valid signing permission can still submit harmful content for signing.

B:

Signing operations themselves need independent authorization and policy.

D:

An attacker controlling the authorized decrypting principal can still export key material.

Question 192

Management implemented a response after this event: Application developers can export signing private keys from a regular filesystem after completing a CI deployment. The response was: Keep sensitive signing keys in access-controlled HSM-backed nonexportable operations with independent administration. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The build job can retrieve plaintext private key bytes but encrypts the resulting artifact.
  2. A developer can submit authorized signing requests but cannot extract private key material.
  3. An HSM is installed, but release engineering can download the same key through a backup endpoint.
  4. Signatures verify successfully, but no export-denial test or scoped signing approval is recorded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A developer can submit authorized signing requests but cannot extract private key material. Protected key generation and sign operations reduce theft through ordinary build accounts.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Artifact encryption does not demonstrate nonexportability of the signing credential.

C:

A device’s presence does not prove every effective extraction path is denied.

D:

A correct signature proves the key worked, not that private-key custody is secure.

Question 193

A CI runner executes pull-request containers as privileged root with host filesystem mounts, enabling untrusted tests to inspect production secrets. Which redesign best limits container escape and lateral access?

  1. Continue using privileged containers because the image passed a malware signature scan.
  2. Run untrusted workloads in isolated least-privilege runtimes without unnecessary host mounts or capabilities, and withhold sensitive runner credentials.
  3. Use the host root account to make all CI tests reproducible across repositories.
  4. Store production tokens in the mounted host directory but hide the folder name from tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Container images and jobs may include adversarial code. Privileged containers and host mounts collapse host/process isolation and expose secrets unrelated to tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Static scanning does not remove runtime privileges that allow host filesystem access or container breakout.

C:

Root access expands compromise impact instead of isolating untrusted build code.

D:

Path obscurity cannot prevent privileged workloads from reading an accessible mounted directory.

Question 194

A CI platform removes privileged containers and host mounts for untrusted pull requests. Which additional boundary must still be protected?

  1. The build runner’s credentials, network access and trusted-pipeline separation so untrusted code cannot reach production through another authority path.
  2. Any container image with a clean scan can safely receive production deployment keys.
  3. All CI jobs must share one permanent administrative token for convenience.
  4. Network egress policy becomes unnecessary once Linux capabilities are restricted.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Container runtime isolation reduces host exposure but does not automatically restrict outbound connections or accessible tokens provided to untrusted jobs.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A clean scan is not proof that arbitrary pull-request code should receive highly privileged secrets.

C:

Shared broad keys erase the trust separation between unreviewed and approved code.

D:

A sandbox may still make network requests to sensitive internal or external services.

Question 195

A software factory claims untrusted pull-request containers are isolated from host secrets and production infrastructure. Which adversarial test most directly checks the claim?

  1. A hostile test container cannot read host-mounted secrets, gain privileged capabilities or use deployment credentials, while approved test workloads still run.
  2. The container produces successful unit-test output while still reading the host credential directory.
  3. A vulnerability scanner reports no known CVEs but no privileged-container escape path is attempted.
  4. A policy says privileged mode is forbidden, but an untrusted job still starts with root host mounts.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An explicit negative isolation exercise and positive build check test the runner’s actual authority boundaries.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Test completion is irrelevant when the job can access privileged host secrets.

C:

Static image health does not verify runtime containment against host access.

D:

Stated configuration without enforcement is a failed isolation control.

Question 196

A small serverless invoice function uses an account-wide administrator role to read one billing table. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Keep account-wide administrator access because serverless infrastructure is maintained by the cloud provider.
  2. Restrict the function’s network interface but leave its role able to delete every unrelated database.
  3. Assign the same privileged deployment role to billing and unrelated functions for operational simplicity.
  4. Scope the function identity to required data actions and enforce downstream resource boundaries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Managed compute does not remove customer responsibility for excessive function permissions. An execution token stolen from a vulnerable function may still be abused within its allowed scope.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Managed compute does not remove customer responsibility for function execution privileges.

B:

Network controls do not eliminate excess API permissions granted to the identity.

C:

Shared broad authorization increases compromise impact across applications.

Question 197

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A small serverless invoice function uses an account-wide administrator role to read one billing table. The approved response was: Scope the function identity to required data actions and enforce downstream resource boundaries. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Least privilege makes an exploited function harmless, even for its legitimately allowed billing reads.
  2. The cloud provider’s hardware assurances certify the customer’s runtime IAM policy.
  3. An execution token stolen from a vulnerable function may still be abused within its allowed scope.
  4. An execution role with read-only permissions on one table can never expose sensitive data.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Managed compute does not remove customer responsibility for excessive function permissions. Authorized invoice reads work, while unrelated table deletion and key-management operations fail.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A stolen scoped identity can still abuse the resources and operations it is permitted to use.

B:

Physical infrastructure assurance is separate from workload authorization.

D:

Read access itself can be abused if business-level authorization or data scope is too broad.

Question 198

Management implemented a response after this event: A small serverless invoice function uses an account-wide administrator role to read one billing table. The response was: Scope the function identity to required data actions and enforce downstream resource boundaries. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Authorized invoice reads work, while unrelated table deletion and key-management operations fail.
  2. The invoice function reads its billing table, but the same role can also delete unrelated key-management resources.
  3. A cloud dashboard says managed compute while the function uses an account-wide admin role.
  4. A code scanner finds no high-severity bugs but role simulation still permits unrelated database deletion.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Authorized invoice reads work, while unrelated table deletion and key-management operations fail. Managed compute does not remove customer responsibility for excessive function permissions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Positive function behavior does not verify denial of excessive permissions.

C:

Service model labels cannot establish least privilege.

D:

Source hygiene cannot substitute for effective IAM negative-permission tests.

Question 199

A plant's programmable controller cannot be restarted safely during production, but IT schedules an automatic firmware update. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Push the new controller firmware immediately during active industrial production to meet a generic patch deadline.
  2. Defer every security measure until the next yearly shutdown, leaving the controller openly reachable.
  3. Use safety-engineered maintenance planning and segmented compensating controls with approved vendor procedures.
  4. Allow IT to reboot the plant controller from its patch console without a vendor-approved safety sequence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

OT availability and human safety constraints change acceptable patch methods and timing. An isolated plant still needs monitoring and a tested emergency shutdown procedure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A disruptive update without safety approval can endanger equipment and people.

B:

Scheduling constraints do not justify ignoring interim segmentation and monitoring.

D:

Corporate automation must account for industrial process state and approved maintenance procedures.

Question 200

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A plant's programmable controller cannot be restarted safely during production, but IT schedules an automatic firmware update. The approved response was: Use safety-engineered maintenance planning and segmented compensating controls with approved vendor procedures. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Air-gapping the plant automatically removes all safety and cybersecurity monitoring requirements.
  2. An isolated plant still needs monitoring and a tested emergency shutdown procedure.
  3. An urgent CVE always takes priority over established human-safety and process-control procedures.
  4. A planned patch window guarantees a safe upgrade even when equipment rollback and failure state are untested.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

OT availability and human safety constraints change acceptable patch methods and timing. A dry-run change plan demonstrates safe state, rollback and approved maintenance window.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Even segregated OT systems need monitoring, controlled access and tested safe shutdown.

C:

Patching priorities must account for industrial hazard and safe maintenance constraints.

D:

Safety-engineered procedures need rehearsed failure handling and vendor compatibility checks.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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