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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 46

Question 450

Management implemented a response after this event: A finding states 'credentials exposed' but contains no logs, timestamps or authorized reproduction procedure. The response was: Document bounded reproduction, evidence integrity, affected scope and uncertainty without storing real secrets broadly. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A second authorized assessor reproduces the finding without using production secrets.
  2. A second authorized tester cannot reproduce the alleged leak because the report omits endpoints and steps.
  3. The report stores real passwords in a publicly readable issue tracker while claiming secure evidence handling.
  4. The only evidence is an unsigned claim without timestamps or affected scope.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A second authorized assessor reproduces the finding without using production secrets. A defensible report supports independent validation while minimizing sensitive disclosure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A defensible finding must support bounded independent validation.

C:

Uncontrolled evidence disclosure defeats minimization and custody.

D:

An assertion cannot establish exposure or reliable remediation targeting.

Question 451

Internal auditors are tasked with implementing the controls they subsequently audit and are evaluated on rollout speed. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Separate internal audit assurance responsibilities from operational control ownership.
  2. Have internal auditors implement access-control settings and then issue assurance opinions on their own deployments.
  3. Evaluate auditors solely by how quickly they deploy security products rather than the quality of independent findings.
  4. Allow service administrators to rewrite all final audit conclusions without documented challenge or escalation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The three-lines governance concept relies on independence of assurance from day-to-day operations. Auditors still need technical expertise and authorized access to sufficient evidence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Operational ownership creates a self-review conflict for independent assurance.

C:

Implementation speed is not independent audit effectiveness.

D:

Operational influence can undermine objective assurance to governance stakeholders.

Question 452

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Internal auditors are tasked with implementing the controls they subsequently audit and are evaluated on rollout speed. The approved response was: Separate internal audit assurance responsibilities from operational control ownership. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Audit independence is guaranteed when the auditor is technically expert even if they implemented the control.
  2. An organizationally separate auditor can approve a system without sufficient test evidence.
  3. Security operations may direct auditors to suppress findings because it owns the remediation budget.
  4. Auditors still need technical expertise and authorized access to sufficient evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The three-lines governance concept relies on independence of assurance from day-to-day operations. Audit findings can challenge operational management without the assessor validating their own work.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Competence and separation from operational ownership are distinct requirements.

B:

Independence cannot substitute for adequate scope, skill and evidence.

C:

Audit conclusions must remain objective despite management responsibilities for fixes.

Question 453

Management implemented a response after this event: Internal auditors are tasked with implementing the controls they subsequently audit and are evaluated on rollout speed. The response was: Separate internal audit assurance responsibilities from operational control ownership. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The same administrator configures and approves the access policy as an independent audit finding.
  2. An auditor’s performance bonus depends entirely on successful deployment of the controls they inspect.
  3. Auditors are excluded from operational teams on paper but cannot report deficiencies without approval from the assessed manager.
  4. Audit findings can challenge operational management without the assessor validating their own work.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Audit findings can challenge operational management without the assessor validating their own work. The three-lines governance concept relies on independence of assurance from day-to-day operations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Self-review has not been separated from assurance.

B:

Conflicted incentives undermine objective assessment.

C:

Formal labels do not demonstrate functional independence.

Question 454

A service provider presents an assurance report covering billing controls as proof its customer data-encryption controls were tested. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Read report scope, period, exclusions, complementary user controls and exceptions before relying on it.
  2. Accept the provider’s billing-control SOC report as proof customer data encryption was audited even though encryption is out of scope.
  3. Use the report’s positive headline without reading complementary user controls or carve-outs.
  4. Skip tenant-side access and encryption configuration review because an external report exists.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An audit opinion is meaningful only for the controls and time period actually examined. Even in-scope provider controls leave customer-configured IAM and classification obligations.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An assurance conclusion is limited to the controls, period and exclusions examined.

C:

Customer responsibilities and excluded services can leave critical gaps.

D:

Provider evidence does not cover every customer-controlled setting.

Question 455

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A service provider presents an assurance report covering billing controls as proof its customer data-encryption controls were tested. The approved response was: Read report scope, period, exclusions, complementary user controls and exceptions before relying on it. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Any unqualified audit opinion automatically covers all services and control families operated by the provider.
  2. Complementary user controls are optional marketing recommendations with no effect on tenant assurance.
  3. Even in-scope provider controls leave customer-configured IAM and classification obligations.
  4. A report dated several years ago proves the current tenant still has all relevant encryption controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An audit opinion is meaningful only for the controls and time period actually examined. An evidence map distinguishes provider-tested controls from customer tests and unresolved gaps.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The report defines a specific scope and examination period.

B:

Customer implementations may be necessary for the provider control objectives.

D:

Time periods and configuration changes constrain reliance on past assurance.

Question 456

Management implemented a response after this event: A service provider presents an assurance report covering billing controls as proof its customer data-encryption controls were tested. The response was: Read report scope, period, exclusions, complementary user controls and exceptions before relying on it. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The report covers billing integrity but no cited procedure examined customer-record encryption.
  2. The assurance map ignores a critical complementary user entity control left disabled in the tenant.
  3. Only the report cover page is archived with no exceptions, tested period or scope analysis.
  4. An evidence map distinguishes provider-tested controls from customer tests and unresolved gaps.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An evidence map distinguishes provider-tested controls from customer tests and unresolved gaps. An audit opinion is meaningful only for the controls and time period actually examined.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unrelated in-scope control cannot prove the requested protection.

B:

Supplier reporting alone cannot establish required combined responsibilities.

C:

A headline opinion is insufficient evidence for the specific reliance decision.

Question 457

An auditor selects only freshly remediated servers for a security sample and extrapolates compliance to the entire fleet. What is the best correction?

  1. Keep the sample because recently remediated assets are easier to examine.
  2. Define the population and defensible random or risk-based sampling criteria that include relevant unremediated groups.
  3. Declare all 8,000 servers compliant after viewing three known healthy systems.
  4. Remove any failing system from the population before calculating compliance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Biased selection cannot support conclusions about the overall control population.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Convenience selection systematically distorts operating-effectiveness results.

C:

An unrepresentative tiny sample cannot support a broad assurance conclusion.

D:

Changing scope to hide failures invalidates conclusions and audit transparency.

Question 458

A random sample was selected correctly. What residual limitation remains?

  1. A random sample means no control failures could exist outside it.
  2. Sample size removes the need to document what the audited population contains.
  3. A sample gives bounded assurance, not proof that every unsampled asset is compliant.
  4. Auditors should never use targeted risk-based samples.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Sampling uncertainty and the definition of population must be disclosed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Randomness reduces selection bias; it cannot guarantee universal correctness.

B:

A sample is interpretable only relative to its defined population.

D:

Well-documented risk-based selection can be appropriate for focused high-impact assurance.

Question 459

Which evidence BEST supports an unbiased audit sample?

  1. An undocumented spreadsheet listing five handpicked hosts.
  2. A frozen asset population, reproducible selection method, coverage by risk strata and stated confidence or limits.
  3. A screenshot of the final compliance percentage without the sample basis.
  4. A manager's assurance that the auditors chose 'good' systems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Another auditor can recreate the sample and understand which conclusions it supports.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Without population and selection criteria, the result may be biased.

C:

A percentage without denominator and method is not auditable.

D:

Managerial preference cannot substitute for sampling transparency.

Question 460

An external audit issued a serious access-control finding, but the team closes it on receipt of a remediation ticket. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Close a critical access-control audit finding when a remediation ticket is created, before testing the deployed change.
  2. Let the same implementer assert the finding resolved without independent retest evidence.
  3. Hide the issue from the next audit report because management approved a future deadline.
  4. Require independent retesting and evidence of sustainable remediation before closing the finding.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A created ticket or planned change is not proof that the control works. A successful spot check may still require monitoring to detect recurrence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A planned fix is not evidence that forbidden access was actually removed.

B:

Self-attestation is weaker than validated operating effectiveness.

C:

An approved schedule does not equal corrected or accepted risk.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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