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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 50

Question 490

Tapes holding HR records are sent to a repair contractor in unsealed packages without custody controls. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Ship unencrypted HR backup tapes after adding a printed confidential sticker to the package.
  2. Encrypt sensitive removable media and document sealed transfers and authorized recipients.
  3. Use ordinary courier tracking without encrypting data or validating approved contractor recipients.
  4. Assume transit encryption is unnecessary because tapes are stored in a locked case at the destination.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Secure storage must be maintained while media moves outside controlled facilities. Encryption does not eliminate shipment loss notifications or retention obligations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Labels do not protect readable data when physical custody is lost.

C:

Location tracking cannot prevent disclosure if a shipment is misdelivered.

D:

Storage controls do not cover every handling and transit interval.

Question 491

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Tapes holding HR records are sent to a repair contractor in unsealed packages without custody controls. The approved response was: Encrypt sensitive removable media and document sealed transfers and authorized recipients. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Encrypted backup tapes no longer require custody logs or lost-shipment escalation.
  2. A sealed shipping box guarantees no unauthorized reader can ever extract tape contents.
  3. Using a recognized courier automatically authorizes delivery of personal HR records to any receiving employee.
  4. Encryption does not eliminate shipment loss notifications or retention obligations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Secure storage must be maintained while media moves outside controlled facilities. A simulated missing shipment reveals no readable records and a traceable custody gap.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cryptography protects contents but does not eliminate retention and accountability obligations.

B:

Packaging can be lost or opened; the stored bytes still need protection.

C:

Custodian and recipient scope need explicit approval.

Question 492

Management implemented a response after this event: Tapes holding HR records are sent to a repair contractor in unsealed packages without custody controls. The response was: Encrypt sensitive removable media and document sealed transfers and authorized recipients. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The courier reports shipment delivered, but an unapproved recipient can read the tape contents.
  2. The tapes are encrypted but there is no custody record identifying a gap after a simulated loss.
  3. A simulated missing shipment reveals no readable records and a traceable custody gap.
  4. The package is labeled confidential, yet a missing-tape drill cannot show encryption or legitimate receipt.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A simulated missing shipment reveals no readable records and a traceable custody gap. Secure storage must be maintained while media moves outside controlled facilities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Successful shipping is not evidence of protected sensitive-media transfer.

B:

Content secrecy alone does not demonstrate accountable handling.

D:

A sticker does not verify operational transport safeguards.

Question 493

Recovery backups are encrypted with keys stored only on the production system they must recover. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Keep the only backup decryption key on the same production disk whose outage the backup must survive.
  2. Copy all backup decrypt keys to every administrator laptop without escrow restrictions.
  3. Protect independently recoverable backup decryption keys under separate custodian access.
  4. Rely on unencrypted recovery media to avoid maintaining an independent key custody process.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Backups cannot restore availability if the only decryption material is destroyed with production. Independent escrow expands key exposure and requires strong separation and testing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A production disaster can destroy both data and the sole recovery secret.

B:

Broad uncontrolled key distribution may allow easy recovery but creates severe confidentiality exposure.

D:

Removing encryption trades away confidentiality rather than designing resilient key recovery.

Question 494

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Recovery backups are encrypted with keys stored only on the production system they must recover. The approved response was: Protect independently recoverable backup decryption keys under separate custodian access. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Independent key escrow is automatically risk free once more copies of the key exist.
  2. A backup counts as recoverable even when its only decryption key is destroyed with the production site.
  3. An on-premises copy of the same production key is always a separate failure domain even in the same building.
  4. Independent escrow expands key exposure and requires strong separation and testing.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Backups cannot restore availability if the only decryption material is destroyed with production. A cold recovery can decrypt sample backups using approved secondary key custody.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Additional decrypt-capable copies require controlled access, logging and lifecycle limits.

B:

Encrypted data needs an independently available authorized key path.

C:

Physical and administrative common-mode risks must be considered.

Question 495

Management implemented a response after this event: Recovery backups are encrypted with keys stored only on the production system they must recover. The response was: Protect independently recoverable backup decryption keys under separate custodian access. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A cold-site restore cannot decrypt backups because the only key was lost with production.
  2. A secondary key escrow copy can be downloaded by any office employee without approval.
  3. A cold recovery can decrypt sample backups using approved secondary key custody.
  4. The backup job log is successful, but no authorized alternate-site decrypt-and-restore has been tested.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A cold recovery can decrypt sample backups using approved secondary key custody. Backups cannot restore availability if the only decryption material is destroyed with production.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The recovery dependency was not isolated from the original failure.

B:

Recoverability without access restriction is not safe key custody.

D:

Backup completion does not establish usable disaster recovery.

Question 496

A monitoring analyst discovers a credible sign of unauthorized payment-card data transfer. The help desk categorizes it as a routine password reset with no investigation or escalation. What is the BEST immediate management response?

  1. Close the ticket after changing the user password, without examining the data transfer.
  2. Publish an unverified public breach notice before the authorized privacy and legal team assesses facts.
  3. Delete all suspected logs to avoid storing sensitive cardholder details.
  4. Triage and classify the potential incident by credible evidence, data sensitivity and impact; preserve records and activate the appropriate incident-response and privacy/legal escalation paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Incident response needs risk-based prioritization and coordinated escalation. The event may or may not become a confirmed reportable breach, but credible exfiltration indicators should not be processed as an ordinary reset ticket.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Credential reset may be one containment action but cannot characterize data exposure or satisfy incident-management responsibilities.

B:

Unsupported public claims can mislead affected people and impede the controlled notification process.

C:

Destroying evidence prevents investigation, attribution and justified notification decisions.

Question 497

A security operations center escalates a suspected payment-card exfiltration and begins containment. What is the MOST important decision guardrail while facts are incomplete?

  1. Treat the first severity label as irrevocable even if forensic evidence changes the impact.
  2. Maintain an evidence-based severity and communication process that can be revised as facts emerge while preserving the investigation record.
  3. Declare every alert a confirmed public breach with identical disclosures before investigation.
  4. Suppress all internal notifications until the complete forensic report is finished weeks later.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Severity and notification duties depend on facts, criticality and applicable requirements. Early uncertainty warrants structured reclassification and accountable decisions, not false certainty.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A reasonable response process updates severity when new trustworthy information changes the risk estimate.

C:

An alert is a lead; premature definitive claims may be inaccurate and differ from applicable legal thresholds.

D:

A credible high-impact incident requires timely response, coordination and situational updates before final root cause.

Question 498

After an incident playbook revision, what exercise BEST verifies that suspected payment-data exfiltration receives risk-appropriate handling?

  1. The help desk marks every event “closed” within its standard ticket SLA without security review.
  2. A simulated credible exfiltration triggers timely SOC, incident command and privacy/legal routing with documented evidence custody and justified severity reassessment.
  3. The SIEM lists alert counts but no timestamps showing responsible teams were contacted.
  4. The legal team learns of the event only after the help desk deletes all relevant log entries.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A controlled end-to-end drill tests classification, escalation, evidence handling and evolving decision-making rather than just the existence of a playbook.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A short ticket lifetime can hide a failed escalation for high-impact incidents.

C:

Detection volume does not demonstrate that escalation and impact-sensitive response occurred.

D:

Lost evidence and late notification show the planned response path failed.

Question 499

An infected bedside monitor is disconnected from the network without coordination, causing loss of critical patient telemetry. Malicious traffic remains a real threat. What should the security incident commander do FIRST?

  1. Immediately shut down all monitors across the hospital without confirming alternate care capability.
  2. Ignore the infection permanently because safety-critical devices cannot be disconnected.
  3. Allow the malware to propagate while collecting extra packet samples for research.
  4. Coordinate with clinical safety owners to establish safe alternate monitoring, then apply proportionate containment and enhanced observation under accountable incident authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

For a safety-critical system, an abrupt cyber containment action can cause more immediate harm than controlled exposure. Patient care continuity and containment must be jointly managed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unplanned broad isolation magnifies patient-safety risk and may interrupt unrelated functioning care equipment.

B:

Safety constraints require controlled mitigation, not indefinite acceptance of malicious communications.

C:

Investigation needs boundaries; intentionally exposing neighboring clinical systems increases risk without an approved safety tradeoff.

Question 500

Clinicians approve delayed isolation of an infected medical device until safe backup monitoring is available. What residual risk must be explicitly governed?

  1. Assume the infection can never reach another device because the medical equipment is specialized.
  2. Discard the deadline once a clinician verbally approves temporary operation.
  3. Stop all monitoring because it might increase administrative workload.
  4. The continuing malware exposure and compensating segmentation, monitoring, deadlines and decision authority during the time-limited delay.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Deferring containment to protect patients can be warranted only with deliberate risk ownership and controls reducing ongoing compromise or lateral movement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Specialized operational technology can still share networks and vulnerabilities; residual spread must be assessed.

B:

A time-limited, documented safety exception needs reassessment and a plan to complete containment.

C:

Monitoring is a key compensation for the period when the threat cannot yet be fully removed.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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