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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 49

Question 480

Management implemented a response after this event: A workstation sends large encrypted uploads nightly to an unfamiliar domain despite normal antivirus scans. The response was: Monitor approved egress baselines and investigate destination, volume and user context. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A scheduled synthetic exfiltration runs nightly but produces no source, destination or volume anomaly evidence.
  2. Alerts fire for every approved cloud backup, while a novel foreign destination is not triaged.
  3. Antivirus shows no malware, but repeated encrypted transfers to an unknown destination remain unexplained.
  4. A controlled anomalous transfer is detected with actionable identity and destination details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A controlled anomalous transfer is detected with actionable identity and destination details. Malicious data movement may be visible through metadata even when payload is encrypted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Missing telemetry fails the intended detection objective.

B:

Uncontextualized thresholds cause false positives and miss real risk.

C:

Endpoint scanner results cannot independently validate authorized data flows.

Question 481

Anomaly software flags an administrator's unusual night shift as malicious without checking approved work schedules. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Automatically terminate every administrator account when a night shift differs from the user’s historic pattern.
  2. Ignore unusual access as long as it happens within official office hours.
  3. Correlate behavioral anomalies with contextual authorization and independently verified signals.
  4. Declare all users with rare logins malicious without checking authorization or independent signals.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An anomaly is an investigative lead, not proof of malicious intent. Insider misuse can occur during normal hours and still needs correlated evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Anomaly alone can reflect approved maintenance and needs verification.

B:

Insider misuse can occur during apparently normal schedules.

D:

Rarity is a triage input, not proof of harmful intent.

Question 482

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Anomaly software flags an administrator's unusual night shift as malicious without checking approved work schedules. The approved response was: Correlate behavioral anomalies with contextual authorization and independently verified signals. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. An unusual activity score always demonstrates unauthorized behavior without other corroboration.
  2. An administrator’s approved work schedule ensures no privilege abuse can take place during it.
  3. Behavioral anomaly detection can safely suppress all alerts for high-trust roles.
  4. Insider misuse can occur during normal hours and still needs correlated evidence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

An anomaly is an investigative lead, not proof of malicious intent. An authorized maintenance event is cleared and a simulated privilege abuse remains detectable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Context and known maintenance can explain many anomalies.

B:

Authorization to work does not excuse misuse of granted privileges.

C:

Privileged accounts may be attractive abuse paths and need contextual review.

Question 483

Management implemented a response after this event: Anomaly software flags an administrator's unusual night shift as malicious without checking approved work schedules. The response was: Correlate behavioral anomalies with contextual authorization and independently verified signals. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A legitimate scheduled night repair is permanently classified malicious even after manager and change-ticket confirmation.
  2. A simulated admin data theft during ordinary hours generates no alert because the timing is typical.
  3. An authorized maintenance event is cleared and a simulated privilege abuse remains detectable.
  4. The UEBA dashboard reports an anomaly score but cannot link it to resource access, authorization or other observations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

An authorized maintenance event is cleared and a simulated privilege abuse remains detectable. An anomaly is an investigative lead, not proof of malicious intent.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The detector lacks contextual decision-making and produces avoidable false positives.

B:

A normal schedule must not mask malicious behavior.

D:

An uncorroborated score is not sufficient incident evidence.

Question 484

Two identical firewalls run different emergency rules months after a change window. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Maintain approved configuration baselines with monitored drift and controlled reconciliation.
  2. Treat the deployment-day approved firewall baseline as permanently valid despite later console edits.
  3. Restore every firewall automatically to yesterday’s image without determining whether emergency changes are still needed.
  4. Compare only device model numbers and assume identical devices have identical policy rules.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Consistent configuration reduces hidden exposure from unreviewed changes. Automated rollback of a valid emergency rule can create outages without change-control coordination.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Emergency and manual changes can cause drift outside the controlled configuration.

C:

Blind rollback can remove necessary business and safety safeguards.

D:

Hardware similarity does not establish current security configuration consistency.

Question 485

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Two identical firewalls run different emergency rules months after a change window. The approved response was: Maintain approved configuration baselines with monitored drift and controlled reconciliation. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Automated rollback of a valid emergency rule can create outages without change-control coordination.
  2. Automated drift correction can ignore active approved emergency exceptions without availability consequences.
  3. Two devices built from the same image can never diverge after production deployment.
  4. An approved baseline document alone proves every running firewall follows it today.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Consistent configuration reduces hidden exposure from unreviewed changes. A drift event is attributable, reviewed and restored or formally accepted.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A valid temporary change needs decision-aware reconciliation.

C:

Live changes can alter effective rules and security posture.

D:

Observed configuration comparison is required to verify actual state.

Question 486

Management implemented a response after this event: Two identical firewalls run different emergency rules months after a change window. The response was: Maintain approved configuration baselines with monitored drift and controlled reconciliation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The intended rules are signed off, but a live diff shows one firewall still allows unapproved traffic.
  2. A drift event is attributable, reviewed and restored or formally accepted.
  3. Drift alerts appear, but there is no accountable review or remediation of an unexpected emergency rule.
  4. The two appliances share a version number, yet their actual access rules conflict.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A drift event is attributable, reviewed and restored or formally accepted. Consistent configuration reduces hidden exposure from unreviewed changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Baseline paperwork cannot establish operational compliance.

C:

Detection without action does not close the configuration gap.

D:

Version matching cannot demonstrate equivalent protection.

Question 487

A backup operator can both delete every recovery copy and approve the deletion evidence. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Allow a single backup operator to delete all recovery copies and approve the deletion evidence.
  2. Require the same shared administrator password for authorization and execution of backup destruction.
  3. Separate destructive authority and approval, with protected logs and recovery custody.
  4. Archive a deletion ticket but leave unbounded direct privileged commands available to the operator.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Separation of duties reduces the chance one compromised identity destroys recovery proof. Collusion and shared admin credentials can bypass nominal role separation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

One compromised principal can destroy both recoverability and its audit trail.

B:

Shared authority prevents meaningful separation or individual attribution.

D:

Documentation cannot replace effective independent destructive-action authorization.

Question 488

A backup organization formally splits deletion requests and approvals between two people, but both roles still use one shared root account capable of erasing the production and off-site recovery copies. Which remaining control failure is MOST significant?

  1. The two named roles guarantee separation despite their use of the same destructive shared root identity.
  2. An append-only approval log alone prevents deletion through a broadly authorized shared root account.
  3. The shared root account bypasses individually enforced destructive privileges and accountability; separate effective vault rights and identities are still required.
  4. A backup operator can safely erase every off-site copy as long as an unrelated procurement approval is recorded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Separate duties must be implemented as actual distinct authorizations, protected backup custody and user-specific privileged identities, not merely administrative role labels.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A shared privileged identity can perform all operations and obscures attribution; role names alone do not enforce separation.

B:

Audit logs may document misuse but do not technically restrict a root credential with destructive authority.

D:

The security boundary concerns effective backup deletion and recovery custody, which an unrelated approval cannot protect.

Question 489

Management implemented a response after this event: A backup operator can both delete every recovery copy and approve the deletion evidence. The response was: Separate destructive authority and approval, with protected logs and recovery custody. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. One operator cannot both authorize and perform bulk backup deletion.
  2. One operator’s token can both authorize and execute destruction of every recovery copy.
  3. Backup deletions appear in logs but can still be approved unilaterally with a shared admin credential.
  4. A role matrix lists two approvers, while a direct API call deletes copies with one credential.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

One operator cannot both authorize and perform bulk backup deletion. Separation of duties reduces the chance one compromised identity destroys recovery proof.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The tested action violates the intended separation of authority.

C:

Traceability does not prove independent destructive-action control.

D:

Paper separation is ineffective when enforcement can be bypassed.

Question 490

Tapes holding HR records are sent to a repair contractor in unsealed packages without custody controls. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Ship unencrypted HR backup tapes after adding a printed confidential sticker to the package.
  2. Encrypt sensitive removable media and document sealed transfers and authorized recipients.
  3. Use ordinary courier tracking without encrypting data or validating approved contractor recipients.
  4. Assume transit encryption is unnecessary because tapes are stored in a locked case at the destination.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Secure storage must be maintained while media moves outside controlled facilities. Encryption does not eliminate shipment loss notifications or retention obligations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Labels do not protect readable data when physical custody is lost.

C:

Location tracking cannot prevent disclosure if a shipment is misdelivered.

D:

Storage controls do not cover every handling and transit interval.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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