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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 48

Question 470

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A suspicious transaction spans server logs, firewall events and mobile-device records with inconsistent time zones. The approved response was: Normalize timestamps and account for clock skew while preserving original timestamp metadata. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Synchronized timestamps guarantee that the account named in a log was controlled by its legitimate user.
  2. A converted UTC timestamp makes source log metadata unnecessary for legal and forensic review.
  3. Ordering events by file arrival time is always equivalent to ordering them by occurrence.
  4. A synchronized clock does not prove the logged identity was uncompromised.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cross-source event ordering depends on time accuracy and documented conversion. A reproducible timeline shows confidence bounds and source event references.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Clock accuracy supports timing, not identity integrity when credentials may be compromised.

B:

The original timestamp and conversion assumptions must remain available.

C:

Collection delays and clock offsets can reorder observed events.

Question 471

Management implemented a response after this event: A suspicious transaction spans server logs, firewall events and mobile-device records with inconsistent time zones. The response was: Normalize timestamps and account for clock skew while preserving original timestamp metadata. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Events from multiple systems are sorted alphabetically by timestamp strings even though time zones differ.
  2. A reproducible timeline shows confidence bounds and source event references.
  3. A timeline lists converted UTC times but deletes all original event timestamps and offset calculations.
  4. All logs are collected, but confidence intervals for known clock skew are absent.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A reproducible timeline shows confidence bounds and source event references. Cross-source event ordering depends on time accuracy and documented conversion.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Lexical order is not a reliable normalized incident chronology.

C:

Losing provenance prevents an independent examiner from reproducing the sequence.

D:

Collection completeness is insufficient to justify fine-grained causal ordering.

Question 472

An IDS fires thousands of signature alerts without correlation to asset criticality or verified compromise. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Send every IDS signature hit to the critical incident queue without asset or corroborating context.
  2. Suppress every repeated signature without checking whether it belongs to a high-value system.
  3. Correlate identities, assets, context and multiple signal types before prioritized escalation.
  4. Rank events strictly by log count even if the affected payment service is business critical.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Uncontextualized alert volume can overwhelm response and obscure meaningful incidents. Overaggressive suppression can hide low-frequency targeted attacks and needs feedback checks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Raw alert volume overwhelms responders and hides business-relevant events.

B:

Indiscriminate filtering can remove true low-frequency or contextual incidents.

D:

Volume alone does not measure impact or likely compromise.

Question 473

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An IDS fires thousands of signature alerts without correlation to asset criticality or verified compromise. The approved response was: Correlate identities, assets, context and multiple signal types before prioritized escalation. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Low-volume anomalous attacks can always be discarded when a signature fires infrequently.
  2. Every IDS alert represents a confirmed security breach and warrants automatic shutdown.
  3. Overaggressive suppression can hide low-frequency targeted attacks and needs feedback checks.
  4. Large event counts guarantee high business impact even when all affected hosts are noncritical test systems.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Uncontextualized alert volume can overwhelm response and obscure meaningful incidents. A replayed high-impact attack is elevated while low-context noise is appropriately triaged.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Targeted attacks may require contextual escalation despite few events.

B:

An alert is a lead requiring triage, confidence and impact assessment.

D:

Business criticality and corroboration matter independently of alert quantity.

Question 474

Management implemented a response after this event: An IDS fires thousands of signature alerts without correlation to asset criticality or verified compromise. The response was: Correlate identities, assets, context and multiple signal types before prioritized escalation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A replayed high-impact attack is elevated while low-context noise is appropriately triaged.
  2. A simulated payment intrusion is buried among thousands of generic alerts with no priority increase.
  3. Alert volumes fall after tuning, but a low-frequency unauthorized access test no longer triggers escalation.
  4. A dashboard reports raw IDS hit totals without linking events to users, protected assets or response actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A replayed high-impact attack is elevated while low-context noise is appropriately triaged. Uncontextualized alert volume can overwhelm response and obscure meaningful incidents.

Incorrect Answers

B:

High-impact events remain indistinguishable from noise.

C:

Suppressing noise at the cost of missed attacks is not effective triage.

D:

Counting signals does not prove actionable incident correlation.

Question 475

A database administrator can delete local audit logs and hide unauthorized queries. Which control BEST protects evidentiary integrity?

  1. Keep all security logs only in the same admin-controlled directory.
  2. Encrypt logs with a key held by the same administrator and allow unrestricted deletion.
  3. Disable query logging to reduce performance overhead.
  4. Forward relevant events promptly to access-separated tamper-evident storage with synchronized clocks and delivery monitoring.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Independent custody reduces the subject administrator's ability to erase their own activity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A privileged subject can erase or alter evidence under shared authority.

B:

Encryption does not stop a privileged actor who can remove ciphertext or keys.

C:

Eliminating logs destroys auditability rather than addressing tampering.

Question 476

Centralized tamper-evident logging is deployed. Which residual operational risk remains?

  1. Central storage guarantees every event was generated at the source.
  2. Immutable storage means time synchronization no longer matters.
  3. Events can be lost before forwarding or accessed by excessive central-log readers; delivery assurance and least privilege remain necessary.
  4. A tamper-evident log cannot contain confidential information.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Protected storage does not automatically establish complete collection or authorized visibility.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Missing or disabled source logging is a separate completeness failure.

B:

Ordering and correlation still depend on reliable timestamps.

D:

Sensitive records can still appear in logs and require access/retention controls.

Question 477

Which red-team exercise BEST validates privileged-user audit resistance?

  1. Verify the log bucket exists on a cloud console.
  2. Have a test DBA alter local logs and interrupt forwarding; verify protected remote records survive and missing-delivery alerts fire.
  3. Count how many logs are generated on one normal day.
  4. Confirm the database administrator can read and delete every centralized record.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The test exercises both tamper resistance and telemetry completeness.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Storage presence alone cannot prove protected privileges or reliable forwarding.

C:

Volume does not establish integrity against privileged deletion.

D:

Unrestricted DBA deletion defeats the separation the control requires.

Question 478

A workstation sends large encrypted uploads nightly to an unfamiliar domain despite normal antivirus scans. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Ignore large encrypted uploads because the payload cannot be inspected by the antivirus engine.
  2. Monitor approved egress baselines and investigate destination, volume and user context.
  3. Increase endpoint patch cadence without monitoring the repeated unusual outbound transfers.
  4. Block all encrypted network traffic permanently without classifying legitimate backup and software updates.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Malicious data movement may be visible through metadata even when payload is encrypted. Legitimate backups and update traffic need contextual filtering to avoid false positives.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Flow metadata, destination and user behavior can still support investigation.

C:

Patching is useful but does not establish whether current data movement is authorized.

D:

An indiscriminate ban is not proportionate contextual egress control.

Question 479

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A workstation sends large encrypted uploads nightly to an unfamiliar domain despite normal antivirus scans. The approved response was: Monitor approved egress baselines and investigate destination, volume and user context. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Legitimate backups and update traffic need contextual filtering to avoid false positives.
  2. Encrypted payloads cannot reveal any behavioral signs of exfiltration.
  3. Every large upload must be malicious regardless of approved backup jobs and deployment schedules.
  4. A clean antivirus scan proves all network egress from the device is authorized.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Malicious data movement may be visible through metadata even when payload is encrypted. A controlled anomalous transfer is detected with actionable identity and destination details.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Volume, timing, destinations and identity context can still indicate abnormal transfers.

C:

Context is necessary to avoid blocking legitimate business operations.

D:

Malicious data movement can use allowed tools and channels.

Question 480

Management implemented a response after this event: A workstation sends large encrypted uploads nightly to an unfamiliar domain despite normal antivirus scans. The response was: Monitor approved egress baselines and investigate destination, volume and user context. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A scheduled synthetic exfiltration runs nightly but produces no source, destination or volume anomaly evidence.
  2. Alerts fire for every approved cloud backup, while a novel foreign destination is not triaged.
  3. Antivirus shows no malware, but repeated encrypted transfers to an unknown destination remain unexplained.
  4. A controlled anomalous transfer is detected with actionable identity and destination details.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A controlled anomalous transfer is detected with actionable identity and destination details. Malicious data movement may be visible through metadata even when payload is encrypted.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Missing telemetry fails the intended detection objective.

B:

Uncontextualized thresholds cause false positives and miss real risk.

C:

Endpoint scanner results cannot independently validate authorized data flows.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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