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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 53

Question 520

An emergency firewall fix is deployed without recorded approver, rollback or verification because the incident is urgent. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Apply urgent firewall changes directly with no accountable approver, rollback or postchange verification.
  2. Wait for the next normal monthly change board while an active exploit bypasses critical boundaries.
  3. Delete the emergency change record after service restoration to save administrative effort.
  4. Use an expedited authorized change path with impact, rollback and retrospective review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Emergency changes may accelerate approval but still require traceable governance. Retrospective approval must not become a loophole for routine unreviewed modifications.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An emergency allows expedited governance, not uncontrolled modification.

B:

Ordinary cadence may be too slow; a risk-approved emergency path is needed.

C:

Loss of the decision trail undermines accountability and lessons learned.

Question 521

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An emergency firewall fix is deployed without recorded approver, rollback or verification because the incident is urgent. The approved response was: Use an expedited authorized change path with impact, rollback and retrospective review. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Retrospective approval must not become a loophole for routine unreviewed modifications.
  2. Emergency maintenance exempts all configuration changes from later review or evidence requirements.
  3. Every emergency patch should be reversed automatically regardless of ongoing vulnerability exposure.
  4. A single manager’s chat message always establishes complete legal and technical change authority.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Emergency changes may accelerate approval but still require traceable governance. The change has an accountable decision, tested outcome and restoration path.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An expedited change still needs traceability and retrospective oversight.

C:

Rollback decisions must consider observed security and operational state.

D:

Approval roles, impact and documentation remain organizationally defined.

Question 522

Management implemented a response after this event: An emergency firewall fix is deployed without recorded approver, rollback or verification because the incident is urgent. The response was: Use an expedited authorized change path with impact, rollback and retrospective review. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The firewall rule is deployed but no owner, impact analysis, verification or rollback path can be found.
  2. The change has an accountable decision, tested outcome and restoration path.
  3. A last-minute exploit is blocked, but the change permanently disrupts permitted services with no restoration plan.
  4. Tickets show an emergency label but all routine bypasses are also processed without accountable postchange review.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The change has an accountable decision, tested outcome and restoration path. Emergency changes may accelerate approval but still require traceable governance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Change completion alone does not show governed safe emergency handling.

C:

Security effect must be balanced against approved service and rollback requirements.

D:

An unchecked label becomes an audit-control bypass.

Question 523

A trading service must recover within ten minutes after loss of its primary site. The proposed recovery facility has only power, racks and empty floor space. Which facility strategy BEST aligns with this RTO?

  1. Use a sufficiently provisioned and tested hot/warm recovery capability capable of serving the complete workload within ten minutes.
  2. Keep only the empty cold facility and assert that power availability proves the ten-minute RTO.
  3. Use a tape archive delivered once per month and regard it as a real-time trading recovery platform.
  4. Purchase additional server-room floor space at the same empty facility without testing build and application recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A cold site with no preloaded systems cannot credibly be assumed to rebuild hardware, software, data and connections inside a minutes-scale business target.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Infrastructure readiness alone does not deliver compute, data, users or transactions after disaster.

C:

Monthly offline media cannot support timely service restoration or likely required data freshness for active trading.

D:

Unused area adds no ready application capacity or validated user-facing availability.

Question 524

A bank maintains a running secondary trading system that should recover within ten minutes. What still must be considered before calling the site resilient?

  1. A running secondary VM automatically guarantees lossless transaction state after regional isolation.
  2. If the recovery site has more CPU, DNS and identity dependencies can be ignored.
  3. A standby system with no completed user transaction can be considered recovered based on status lights alone.
  4. Data freshness, identity/network dependencies, shared utility failures and operational failover ability must meet the complete business workflow objectives.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A powered standby stack may be unusable if transaction data, authentication, routing or personnel are unavailable; capacity alone does not prove RTO/RPO.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A running copy does not ensure synchronous replication or correct state ownership during a failover.

B:

Compute headroom cannot replace network/name resolution and authentication needed by users.

C:

Health indicators do not establish actual service operations at the signed recovery deadline.

Question 525

A trading firm claims its secondary site meets a ten-minute service recovery objective. Which drill result is MOST persuasive?

  1. The backup generator starts in two minutes but no application is running at the site.
  2. The database replica remains synchronized but clients cannot route or authenticate to it.
  3. After isolating the primary, real or safely simulated trading transactions succeed on the recovery system within ten minutes and recovered data age meets the separate RPO.
  4. A vendor sales sheet rates the facility as highly available without a customer-specific outage exercise.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A timed business workflow checks the facility, data, network, identity and human runbook together rather than a component’s boot status.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Utility readiness is only one dependency and cannot satisfy end-to-end application RTO.

B:

Data freshness alone is not evidence that the business service is usable.

D:

Generic site capability is weaker than measured recovery using the actual workload and dependencies.

Question 526

During a regional outage, teams simultaneously restore different databases and publish contradictory customer notices. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Let each team restore its own database in an arbitrary order while customer communications conflict.
  2. Publish customer status announcements from every recovery engineer without an authorized incident communications lead.
  3. Establish a disaster command structure, service dependency ordering and authorized communications plan.
  4. Restore the least critical service first because it has the simplest technical steps, without business priorities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Uncoordinated restoration can create data divergence and inconsistent stakeholder decisions. A command structure needs rehearsed alternates when primary leaders are unavailable.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Uncoordinated dependencies and messages can cause inconsistent business recovery.

B:

Contradictory unapproved statements undermine coordinated disaster response.

D:

Recovery order should follow approved function and dependency impact.

Question 527

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: During a regional outage, teams simultaneously restore different databases and publish contradictory customer notices. The approved response was: Establish a disaster command structure, service dependency ordering and authorized communications plan. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A disaster command chain remains usable even if its only decision-maker is unavailable and no alternate exists.
  2. Technical restoration order can be chosen independently of cross-system transaction dependencies.
  3. Any engineering team may announce confirmed customer recovery before business and legal authorization.
  4. A command structure needs rehearsed alternates when primary leaders are unavailable.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Uncoordinated restoration can create data divergence and inconsistent stakeholder decisions. A simulation follows one decision log, recovery priority and approved customer notification chain.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Continuity governance requires rehearsed substitutes and delegated authority.

B:

Uncoordinated databases can diverge and break critical workflows.

C:

Communications responsibility and evidence thresholds are part of disaster management.

Question 528

Management implemented a response after this event: During a regional outage, teams simultaneously restore different databases and publish contradictory customer notices. The response was: Establish a disaster command structure, service dependency ordering and authorized communications plan. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A disaster drill restores databases in conflicting states and issues multiple contradictory customer notices.
  2. A simulation follows one decision log, recovery priority and approved customer notification chain.
  3. The runbook names one commander but no backup and the exercise stalls when that person is absent.
  4. Systems boot successfully but an end-to-end customer transaction fails because dependent services were recovered out of order.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A simulation follows one decision log, recovery priority and approved customer notification chain. Uncoordinated restoration can create data divergence and inconsistent stakeholder decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The response lacks coordinated priorities and communication authority.

C:

A single-person command plan is not resilient.

D:

Boot completion does not establish dependency-aware business recovery.

Question 529

A disaster-recovery rehearsal must run standby applications while production remains available to real customers. What type of test BEST fits?

  1. A full production cutover performed without business authorization.
  2. A parallel recovery test with isolated replica services and synthetic workload validation.
  3. A desktop-only checklist review with no recovery systems started.
  4. A destructive recovery drill sharing live write credentials and partner endpoints.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Standby systems can be exercised without fully transferring production users.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A live cutover contradicts the requirement to keep customer traffic on production.

C:

A tabletop does not exercise real standby application behavior.

D:

Unisolated writes can corrupt production and external systems.

Question 530

A parallel DR test proves the standby application can process synthetic orders. What remains unproven?

  1. A parallel test means no production risks can exist during exercises.
  2. Successful synthetic orders prove every real user will reconnect immediately.
  3. Live customer routing cutover, end-user session continuity, and some external third-party dependencies may not have been exercised.
  4. Testing parallel recovery requires destroying the production site.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Parallel tests can validate many recovery functions but have defined limits relative to full interruption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Poor isolation can still create DNS, secrets or external side effects.

B:

Traffic and identity cutover paths require separate end-to-end testing.

D:

A principal advantage is exercising recovery without a required live outage.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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