Pass ISC CISSP Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real ISC CISSP Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
3 products

You save $69.98

CISSP Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 484 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Oct 31, 2026
  • Training Course 62 Lectures
  • Study Guide 2003 Pages
$79.99 $149.97

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    484 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Oct 31, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    62 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    2003 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 54

Question 530

A parallel DR test proves the standby application can process synthetic orders. What remains unproven?

  1. A parallel test means no production risks can exist during exercises.
  2. Successful synthetic orders prove every real user will reconnect immediately.
  3. Live customer routing cutover, end-user session continuity, and some external third-party dependencies may not have been exercised.
  4. Testing parallel recovery requires destroying the production site.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Parallel tests can validate many recovery functions but have defined limits relative to full interruption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Poor isolation can still create DNS, secrets or external side effects.

B:

Traffic and identity cutover paths require separate end-to-end testing.

D:

A principal advantage is exercising recovery without a required live outage.

Question 531

Which record BEST demonstrates safe and useful parallel DR testing?

  1. The meeting invite includes the words 'DR rehearsal'.
  2. Storage replicas show healthy status but no application is started.
  3. An engineer screenshots a powered-on empty virtual machine.
  4. Recovery stack performs synthetic transactions in isolated networks; production stays healthy and measured RTO/RPO gaps are recorded.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Proves standby functionality while establishing the no-impact requirement and measured recovery limits.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A planned exercise is not evidence of actual recovery behavior.

B:

Replication health does not establish business service recoverability.

C:

Power state alone is not an end-to-end recovery test.

Question 532

A visitor threatens a receptionist, but security staff have only a visible panic button that increases risk if pressed. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Provide discreet duress reporting and response procedures designed for personnel safety.
  2. Require a threatened receptionist to press a conspicuous alarm that visibly alerts the aggressor.
  3. Instruct staff to physically restrain threatening visitors before requesting help regardless of safety training.
  4. Lock all emergency exits to protect facilities during a duress incident.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Security operations must prioritize personal safety over asset preservation or confrontation. Duress controls require training and response drills to avoid accidental escalation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An exposed action can escalate immediate personal danger instead of protecting personnel.

C:

Untrained confrontation may increase harm and is not a controlled duress process.

D:

Physical security cannot override life-safety escape requirements.

Question 533

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A visitor threatens a receptionist, but security staff have only a visible panic button that increases risk if pressed. The approved response was: Provide discreet duress reporting and response procedures designed for personnel safety. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A discreet alarm can be installed without drills or responder procedures because pressing it is intuitive.
  2. Duress controls require training and response drills to avoid accidental escalation.
  3. A security response should prioritize equipment protection over protecting threatened people.
  4. Every duress alarm must audibly announce activation to deter a nearby aggressor.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Security operations must prioritize personal safety over asset preservation or confrontation. A controlled exercise silently alerts trained responders without exposing the reporting person.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Safe action requires rehearsed, proportionate response and coordination.

C:

Personnel safety has priority over property preservation.

D:

Conspicuous signals can worsen coercion and compromise the employee’s safety.

Question 534

Management implemented a response after this event: A visitor threatens a receptionist, but security staff have only a visible panic button that increases risk if pressed. The response was: Provide discreet duress reporting and response procedures designed for personnel safety. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A simulated threat forces the receptionist to reveal the alarm before it can be used.
  2. An alarm signal fires but trained responders receive no actionable location or procedure.
  3. A controlled exercise silently alerts trained responders without exposing the reporting person.
  4. A tailgating drill ends with emergency egress doors locked and occupants unable to leave safely.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

A controlled exercise silently alerts trained responders without exposing the reporting person. Security operations must prioritize personal safety over asset preservation or confrontation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The control does not allow discreet safe reporting.

B:

Alarm activation alone does not demonstrate effective personnel assistance.

D:

Preventive physical controls cannot compromise life-safety obligations.

Question 535

A payment team's backlog includes functional stories but no attacker abuse cases until one day before deployment. What is the best SDLC change?

  1. Wait until release day for a single penetration scan with no design review.
  2. Make secure development optional whenever delivery dates are near.
  3. Define threat models and abuse-driven security acceptance tests during planning and update them as boundaries change.
  4. Replace business requirements entirely with a list of security tools.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Security requirements integrated early prevent late discovery of structural authorization flaws.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Late scanning is unlikely to catch every architectural trust-boundary weakness.

B:

Deadlines do not remove accountabilities for exploitable design risks.

D:

Tools are not a substitute for threat-focused stories and tested user workflows.

Question 536

A project completed threat modeling at launch. Which residual risk remains after the product adds a new external webhook?

  1. A signed original threat model automatically covers every future interface.
  2. Feature testing becomes unnecessary after a threat model is approved.
  3. New data flows and privileges can invalidate the original model unless it is updated and retested.
  4. Security review should ignore misuse of the new webhook as long as normal delivery works.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Threat analysis is change-dependent, not a once-only certificate.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Assumptions change when boundaries and dependencies evolve.

B:

Planning does not replace implementation and negative functional tests.

D:

Abuse cases are especially important for attacker-controlled ingress.

Question 537

Which development artifact BEST shows threat modeling influenced the actual release?

  1. A slide lists generic threats without referencing project components.
  2. A unit test passes only the normal happy-path request.
  3. The project counts the total number of developers assigned.
  4. A high-risk user story maps a trust-boundary abuse case to assigned mitigation and passing negative acceptance test.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Traceability from threat through implementation to tested denial demonstrates actionable secure design.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unscoped list does not establish that actual attack paths were analyzed.

B:

Positive functionality cannot demonstrate defense against the identified abuse case.

C:

Staffing volume does not show implemented threat mitigation.

Question 538

The CI pipeline automatically deploys code despite a high-severity authentication flaw in an open finding. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Automatically ship the payment code because the CI pipeline compiled despite a known high-severity authentication bypass.
  2. Enforce risk-based security release gates with owner-approved exceptions and evidence of remediation.
  3. Allow each developer to approve their own critical-security exception without documented business risk authority.
  4. Disable all security tests to meet the sprint schedule, promising to review findings after deployment.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Automated delivery should not bypass accountable acceptance of exploitable security defects. Blocking every low-confidence scanner hit without triage may undermine legitimate delivery.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A successful build does not replace accountable security release decisions.

C:

Release controls need authorized exception ownership and evidence of treatment.

D:

Known exploitable issues should not be bypassed through schedule pressure alone.

Question 539

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: The CI pipeline automatically deploys code despite a high-severity authentication flaw in an open finding. The approved response was: Enforce risk-based security release gates with owner-approved exceptions and evidence of remediation. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Every untriaged low-confidence scanner alert should block production forever without a review route.
  2. A security-gate configuration guarantees safety when repository administrators can override it silently.
  3. A passed compilation and unit-test stage proves authentication boundaries cannot be bypassed.
  4. Blocking every low-confidence scanner hit without triage may undermine legitimate delivery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Automated delivery should not bypass accountable acceptance of exploitable security defects. A known critical auth bypass fails promotion while reviewed nonexploitable findings follow exception policy.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Indiscriminate gates can cause needless outages; findings need risk-based disposition.

B:

Enforcement and accountable exception authority must match the declared policy.

C:

Functional build success does not clear known security defects.

Question 540

Management implemented a response after this event: The CI pipeline automatically deploys code despite a high-severity authentication flaw in an open finding. The response was: Enforce risk-based security release gates with owner-approved exceptions and evidence of remediation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A release containing the known authentication bypass is deployed despite a configured severity threshold.
  2. A known critical auth bypass fails promotion while reviewed nonexploitable findings follow exception policy.
  3. A build is marked safe after the developer suppresses the finding without an accountable exception record.
  4. A low-confidence issue blocks every release while verified critical vulnerabilities bypass via an unlogged path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A known critical auth bypass fails promotion while reviewed nonexploitable findings follow exception policy. Automated delivery should not bypass accountable acceptance of exploitable security defects.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The pipeline gate is not enforcing the expected risk decision.

C:

A green status without triage is not evidence of governed release.

D:

A useful gate must enforce proportionate, traceable security outcomes.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    484 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Oct 31, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    62 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    2003 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports