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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 55

Question 540

Management implemented a response after this event: The CI pipeline automatically deploys code despite a high-severity authentication flaw in an open finding. The response was: Enforce risk-based security release gates with owner-approved exceptions and evidence of remediation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A release containing the known authentication bypass is deployed despite a configured severity threshold.
  2. A known critical auth bypass fails promotion while reviewed nonexploitable findings follow exception policy.
  3. A build is marked safe after the developer suppresses the finding without an accountable exception record.
  4. A low-confidence issue blocks every release while verified critical vulnerabilities bypass via an unlogged path.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A known critical auth bypass fails promotion while reviewed nonexploitable findings follow exception policy. Automated delivery should not bypass accountable acceptance of exploitable security defects.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The pipeline gate is not enforcing the expected risk decision.

C:

A green status without triage is not evidence of governed release.

D:

A useful gate must enforce proportionate, traceable security outcomes.

Question 541

Security reviews happen only with a central team at the end of a sprint, delaying safe refactors. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Keep all security knowledge outside the development team until the final prelaunch review.
  2. Assign a security champion title to every developer without training or clear responsibilities.
  3. Replace independent review of high-risk designs with informal sprint discussion alone.
  4. Train accountable development security champions and embed review at ordinary change points.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Integrated expertise can catch design risks earlier than a separate late inspection. Champions augment but do not replace independent assurance for major architectural risks.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Late reviews delay discovery of architectural defects and expensive rework.

B:

A label alone does not integrate useful expertise into normal delivery.

C:

Embedded champions help early detection but do not eliminate the need for independent assurance.

Question 542

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Security reviews happen only with a central team at the end of a sprint, delaying safe refactors. The approved response was: Train accountable development security champions and embed review at ordinary change points. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Appointing security champions guarantees all high-risk architecture decisions are independently reviewed.
  2. Champions augment but do not replace independent assurance for major architectural risks.
  3. A security signoff once per year is enough even when product trust boundaries change each sprint.
  4. Champion attendance at standups is proof that security defects are prevented.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Integrated expertise can catch design risks earlier than a separate late inspection. The team surfaces threats during planning and closes findings before release deadlines.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Champions are part of the delivery team and may need expert outside validation.

C:

Material changes require timely threat and design review.

D:

Role presence does not show timely findings, decisions or corrective actions.

Question 543

Management implemented a response after this event: Security reviews happen only with a central team at the end of a sprint, delaying safe refactors. The response was: Train accountable development security champions and embed review at ordinary change points. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Champions attend planning meetings but high-risk features still discover basic threat flaws at release.
  2. The team surfaces threats during planning and closes findings before release deadlines.
  3. All developer roles have security titles, but no abuse cases or negative tests are attached to work items.
  4. Code ships on schedule while untriaged architectural vulnerabilities repeatedly escape.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The team surfaces threats during planning and closes findings before release deadlines. Integrated expertise can catch design risks earlier than a separate late inspection.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Meeting attendance does not demonstrate integrated early review.

C:

Labels cannot establish adoption of preventive engineering practices.

D:

Delivery speed alone is not evidence that security expertise improved outcomes.

Question 544

A startup measures secure development maturity only by the number of vulnerability tickets resolved each week. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Evaluate repeatable secure-development practices, responsibilities and outcome measures across the lifecycle.
  2. Use the number of closed vulnerability tickets as the only measure of software security maturity.
  3. Claim highest maturity after a single successful security scan without documented responsibilities or requirements.
  4. Defer secure design and change governance because the ticket queue is empty this sprint.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Ticket throughput alone cannot establish governance, requirements, testing and preventive practices. A maturity score can hide critical unaddressed product risks and needs qualitative review.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Closure throughput does not establish preventive and repeatable SDLC practices.

C:

One tool execution cannot demonstrate stable organization-wide capability.

D:

An empty backlog may reflect missing detection rather than true control effectiveness.

Question 545

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A startup measures secure development maturity only by the number of vulnerability tickets resolved each week. The approved response was: Evaluate repeatable secure-development practices, responsibilities and outcome measures across the lifecycle. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A high maturity rating guarantees no exploitable vulnerability can reach production.
  2. A maturity score can hide critical unaddressed product risks and needs qualitative review.
  3. A large number of fixed tickets always means the development lifecycle is improving.
  4. Measuring repeatability removes the need to consider critical exceptions and unknown exposure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Ticket throughput alone cannot establish governance, requirements, testing and preventive practices. Assessment shows repeatable practices and reduced recurrence of previously fixed weakness classes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Maturity assessment is evidence of practices, not an absolute absence of product risk.

C:

Recurring root causes can produce endless fixes without preventive learning.

D:

Process maturity should be interpreted with actual product risk and qualitative gaps.

Question 546

Management implemented a response after this event: A startup measures secure development maturity only by the number of vulnerability tickets resolved each week. The response was: Evaluate repeatable secure-development practices, responsibilities and outcome measures across the lifecycle. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Assessment shows repeatable practices and reduced recurrence of previously fixed weakness classes.
  2. Ticket closure doubles but the same authorization weakness recurs in every new release.
  3. A one-time SAST run succeeds but there is no repeatable secure design or supplier testing practice.
  4. A process receives a high self-assessment score while a severe unaddressed authentication flaw remains ignored.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Assessment shows repeatable practices and reduced recurrence of previously fixed weakness classes. Ticket throughput alone cannot establish governance, requirements, testing and preventive practices.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Activity does not demonstrate systemic defect prevention.

C:

Tool execution cannot establish lifecycle maturity.

D:

A score must not conceal material unresolved product security risk.

Question 547

A build pipeline passes static analysis of first-party source but packages a third-party library with a known exploitable flaw. What additional secure-development control BEST closes this gap?

  1. Assume a passing first-party SAST scan means every packaged third-party library is vulnerability-free.
  2. Hide vulnerable dependency versions in release notes but leave them deployed without evaluation.
  3. Add software composition/dependency analysis, a maintained bill of materials and risk-based update or exception gates for direct and transitive components.
  4. Disable package signature checks to make updates faster and skip component inventories.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

SAST of application source cannot automatically identify every known defect in shipped third-party dependencies. Secure software development must manage the full component supply chain.

Incorrect Answers

A:

SAST and dependency vulnerability analysis cover different evidence; a scan scope does not imply library safety.

B:

Obscuring versions does not remediate an exploitable component or establish acceptable residual risk.

D:

Reducing supply-chain integrity and traceability makes it harder to evaluate vendor vulnerabilities and provenance.

Question 548

A supplier provides an SBOM for every software release. Why is this alone NOT sufficient assurance against third-party software vulnerabilities?

  1. An SBOM automatically patches vulnerable libraries during runtime.
  2. Every component listed in an SBOM has been independently penetration tested by the recipient.
  3. Publishing an SBOM eliminates the need for supplier vulnerability disclosure and update commitments.
  4. An SBOM identifies declared components but does not prove secure configuration, absence of exploitable flaws, timely fixes or accurate complete provenance.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Dependency inventories are necessary for exposure assessment, but they must be paired with vulnerability intelligence, verification, supplier response and remediation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An inventory is descriptive metadata; it is not a patch-deployment mechanism.

B:

Component listing does not certify specific assurance activity or effectiveness.

C:

A list cannot replace the organizational processes needed to respond to future component defects.

Question 549

A software program claims it identifies vulnerable transitive dependencies before shipment. Which pipeline test BEST demonstrates that capability?

  1. Introduce a known vulnerable indirect dependency in a controlled build and verify the inventory identifies it and the release gate blocks or routes an accountable reviewed exception.
  2. The compiler reports no syntax errors and the application starts normally.
  3. A dependency file lists only direct packages and misses the intentionally vulnerable transitive library.
  4. The CI job prints “SBOM generated” but no component-level match or blocking/exception behavior is checked.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A negative build demonstrates actual supply-chain detection, traceability and governed release behavior, not just inventory existence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Functional compilation does not assess third-party component security.

C:

The test would demonstrate incomplete dependency coverage, not a successful security gate.

D:

Artifact presence alone is insufficient evidence that risk is identified and handled.

Question 550

A dynamic web scanner tests only the public login page but misses role-specific internal APIs. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Run a web scanner only on the anonymous login page and infer all authenticated API roles are covered.
  2. Run appropriately authorized DAST sessions representing user roles and negative cross-role behavior.
  3. Test only with a global administrator credential that bypasses ordinary-user checks.
  4. Rely on user interface screenshots without exercising back-end API operations under different identities.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Runtime tests require representative authenticated access to detect protected endpoint flaws. A successful scanner login does not establish role/tenant authorization coverage.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unauthenticated DAST misses authorization and input flows reachable after sign-in.

C:

A single privileged perspective can obscure horizontal and cross-role authorization faults.

D:

Visual coverage is not runtime authorization assessment.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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