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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 10

Question 90

Management implemented a response after this event: A network switch batch arrives with broken tamper seals and inconsistent manufacturing identifiers. The response was: Quarantine suspect devices and validate provenance through trusted procurement and vendor channels before deployment. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The switches forward packets in a lab but serial records still disagree with manufacturer information.
  2. The reseller signs an informal email while tamper-seal anomalies and receiving records remain unresolved.
  3. An antivirus scan finds no malicious processes but the chassis model identifiers do not match vendor records.
  4. Receiving records, serial verification and vendor attestations clear or reject each suspect unit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Receiving records, serial verification and vendor attestations clear or reject each suspect unit. Untrusted hardware provenance may defeat software configuration and postinstallation scanning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Connectivity does not validate suspect provenance.

B:

Uncorroborated supplier assertions are not independent authenticity evidence.

C:

Software scanning cannot validate counterfeit hardware or chain of custody.

Question 91

A company reports 100% security-course attendance while repeated phishing submissions still reach analysts too late. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Continue assigning training solely from attendance records because every employee clicked complete.
  2. Punish every reported phishing mistake without measuring near misses or updating role-specific simulations.
  3. Decrease simulated phishing frequency to make the success rate appear higher.
  4. Evaluate behavioral outcomes and targeted role-based exercises, then improve training based on observed failures.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Awareness efficacy is about safer user behavior, not only completion certificates. A single simulated campaign can bias results; compare trends and include reporting latency.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Completion does not reveal whether phishing behaviors and reporting speed improved.

B:

Punitive reporting can suppress visibility and fails to address actual behavior gaps.

C:

Changing the denominator does not improve the actual reporting and response outcome.

Question 92

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A company reports 100% security-course attendance while repeated phishing submissions still reach analysts too late. The approved response was: Evaluate behavioral outcomes and targeted role-based exercises, then improve training based on observed failures. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A single low-click simulation proves durable phishing resilience across every role.
  2. A single simulated campaign can bias results; compare trends and include reporting latency.
  3. Course attendance alone demonstrates that users will report suspicious messages promptly.
  4. Improved simulated results remove the need to test realistic evolving attacker techniques.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Awareness efficacy is about safer user behavior, not only completion certificates. Trends show faster reporting and fewer unsafe actions for realistic role-specific simulations.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Campaign design, population and reporting latency can change the outcome.

C:

Knowledge acknowledgment does not guarantee future safe behavior.

D:

Behavior and threat tactics change, so effectiveness requires periodic scenario-based reassessment.

Question 93

Management implemented a response after this event: A company reports 100% security-course attendance while repeated phishing submissions still reach analysts too late. The response was: Evaluate behavioral outcomes and targeted role-based exercises, then improve training based on observed failures. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. An LMS dashboard shows perfect completion rates while actual delayed phishing reports continue.
  2. Only one trivial phishing exercise passes without checking realistic role-based lures or reporting times.
  3. Staff say they enjoyed training, but unsafe submissions and escalation latency are unmeasured.
  4. Trends show faster reporting and fewer unsafe actions for realistic role-specific simulations.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Trends show faster reporting and fewer unsafe actions for realistic role-specific simulations. Awareness efficacy is about safer user behavior, not only completion certificates.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Course attendance is not evidence of safer reporting behavior.

B:

An easy single test does not substantiate performance under realistic conditions.

C:

Satisfaction scores are not behavior or risk reduction evidence.

Question 94

Staff paste confidential data into public AI tools because annual awareness material predates approved AI usage guidance. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Keep the unchanged AI awareness course and rely on employees to infer new safe-use rules.
  2. Allow unrestricted public model uploads if the prompt omits the word confidential.
  3. Update training and safe-use policy for AI data handling, approved tools and prompt-injection reporting.
  4. Ban all AI tools without identifying authorized alternatives, technical controls or employee training.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Emerging tools change disclosure and supplier exposure, requiring periodic awareness revisions. Training does not replace enforceable technical controls limiting unauthorized uploads.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An outdated program cannot teach current approved tools, restrictions or reporting paths.

B:

Simple word avoidance cannot prevent disclosure through other sensitive content or context.

D:

An unsupported blanket prohibition can drive hidden use and does not establish practical safe behavior.

Question 95

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Staff paste confidential data into public AI tools because annual awareness material predates approved AI usage guidance. The approved response was: Update training and safe-use policy for AI data handling, approved tools and prompt-injection reporting. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Training does not replace enforceable technical controls limiting unauthorized uploads.
  2. Once employees complete AI awareness, technical restrictions on sensitive uploads are unnecessary.
  3. The absence of a customer name in a prompt guarantees that no confidential organizational data is leaked.
  4. A one-time AI policy slide remains current even as approved tools and prompt-injection risks evolve.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Emerging tools change disclosure and supplier exposure, requiring periodic awareness revisions. Employees can distinguish approved versus forbidden AI data uses and DLP tests corroborate controls.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Human education does not replace enforceable data loss prevention and access controls.

C:

Source code, identifiers and contextual datasets can remain sensitive without names.

D:

Awareness content needs revision for new data flows and threat behavior.

Question 96

Management implemented a response after this event: Staff paste confidential data into public AI tools because annual awareness material predates approved AI usage guidance. The response was: Update training and safe-use policy for AI data handling, approved tools and prompt-injection reporting. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The annual training is marked complete, yet simulated prohibited code uploads still succeed through a public tool.
  2. Employees can distinguish approved versus forbidden AI data uses and DLP tests corroborate controls.
  3. An AI policy exists, but employees cannot distinguish a sanctioned model tenant from a public endpoint.
  4. A staff survey indicates high awareness while DLP alerts show repeated confidential prompt submissions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Employees can distinguish approved versus forbidden AI data uses and DLP tests corroborate controls. Emerging tools change disclosure and supplier exposure, requiring periodic awareness revisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Training completion cannot demonstrate enforceable safe-use controls.

C:

Publication without usable behavioral understanding and enforcement is insufficient.

D:

Self-reported confidence does not prove safe data-handling behavior.

Question 97

An infrastructure administrator labels every field in a mixed clinical-and-marketing database PUBLIC without consulting the business units. Who should determine the correct classifications?

  1. The cloud database operator, using only the storage price as the classification criterion.
  2. Every employee who can query the database, independently applying their own preferred label.
  3. An external marketing vendor that does not own the clinical processing purpose.
  4. The accountable data owner, with legal and privacy input, should classify by sensitivity and authorized purpose; custodians then implement the handling controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Classification reflects the impact of unauthorized disclosure, modification and loss for the business. IT operators implement protection but should not unilaterally waive data-owner decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Cost and hosting responsibility do not determine clinical sensitivity or legal handling needs.

B:

Inconsistent self-classification prevents a governed common sensitivity and handling standard.

C:

An unrelated vendor cannot independently approve exposure of the organization’s regulated records.

Question 98

Business data owners approve classifications for a database containing both clinical records and low-risk campaign metrics. Which design limitation needs attention before using one database-wide label?

  1. The presence of a company logo on the database console changes all clinical data to public.
  2. Individual fields or derivative datasets can have different sensitivity and reidentification risk, requiring finer-grained protection and controlled joins.
  3. A public marketing tag always removes legal duties associated with clinical data in the same row.
  4. A single encrypted disk guarantees every database query may be visible to any employee.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

One blanket label can overprotect innocuous data or underprotect sensitive attributes; the actual processing and combined datasets determine exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Branding has no relationship to the sensitivity of stored personal information.

C:

One low-risk attribute does not declassify unrelated sensitive fields.

D:

Encryption at rest is orthogonal to per-field classification and authorized access.

Question 99

A classification program claims the data owner’s sensitivity decisions actually govern clinical records and marketing attributes. Which audit sample best demonstrates this?

  1. All database tables are marked PUBLIC solely because an IT ticket has been closed.
  2. A sampled field-to-owner classification register maps sensitive data to restricted access and retention, with positive authorized reads and denied unapproved queries.
  3. Disk encryption is enabled but any sales user can export full clinical records.
  4. A training slide explains classification terms, but no field owners or access restrictions exist.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The evidence shows business classification was translated into enforceable handling and access decisions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An implementation ticket does not substitute for business-owner classification or appropriate handling.

C:

Storage encryption alone does not enforce classified data access or permitted purpose.

D:

Training alone cannot demonstrate the program is applied to the actual datasets.

Question 100

An analytics release omits customer names but can be rejoined to a customer-ID lookup table to identify people. What is the BEST classification action?

  1. Label the export public because the name column was removed.
  2. Treat re-identification as a disclosure risk and reassess derived-data sensitivity and access restrictions.
  3. Assume all derived data inherit the lowest classification among their inputs.
  4. Rely on a filename ending in .csv as a privacy control.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Removing direct identifiers is not sufficient when linkable quasi-identifiers remain.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A joinable dataset can still disclose personal identities.

C:

Classification should reflect resulting impact, not an arbitrary minimum input label.

D:

File format says nothing about identity linkage or authorization.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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