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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 8

Question 70

An organization estimates that a particular security incident would cost $200,000 and has an annualized occurrence rate of 0.25. For an initial quantitative risk comparison, what is the expected annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

  1. $50,000.
  2. $200,000.
  3. $800,000.
  4. $250,000.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

ALE is SLE × ARO. Here $200,000 × 0.25 = $50,000 expected loss per year. It is an estimate based on modeled frequency and impact, not a guaranteed annual invoice.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This is the single-loss expectancy (SLE) for one event, not the annualized value for an estimated quarter of an event per year.

C:

Dividing SLE by 0.25 reverses the annualization operation and overstates the modeled annual expectation.

D:

Adding an event rate to the cost is dimensionally invalid; annualized loss multiplies expected frequency by event loss.

Question 71

A team reports ALE of $50,000 from a $200,000 incident impact and annual occurrence rate 0.25. Which interpretation should a risk owner apply before purchasing an expensive control?

  1. Assume the organization cannot lose more than $50,000 in any single year.
  2. Treat $50,000 as an uncertain expected annual loss, test impact and frequency sensitivity, and compare credible residual risk and control costs.
  3. Treat the annual occurrence rate of 0.25 as a certain incident every three months.
  4. Approve every control costing less than $200,000 without analyzing its expected risk reduction.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

ALE depends on estimates with uncertainty. Control value should be evaluated over a relevant period, including residual loss and additional operational cost, rather than treating an average as a guarantee.

Incorrect Answers

A:

ALE is an expected value, not a maximum-loss bound; a single event may still cost $200,000.

C:

An annualized event rate is a probabilistic estimate; it does not specify an exact recurring schedule.

D:

The single-event impact alone does not establish cost-effectiveness; control effect, residual risk and other impacts matter.

Question 72

A quantitative risk register lists $200,000 SLE, 0.25 ARO, and $50,000 ALE. Which review result BEST substantiates its annual-loss estimate?

  1. The calculation shows $200,000 × 0.25 = $50,000, documents data behind both inputs and includes sensitivity to plausible alternative values.
  2. A dashboard shows the same number of vulnerabilities this month as last month.
  3. The finance department approves a $200,000 contingency reserve without reviewing annual occurrence assumptions.
  4. A spreadsheet labels $50,000 as maximum possible one-event loss.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A reproducible formula and transparent assumptions are necessary because frequency and loss estimates are uncertain and affect treatment decisions.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Raw vulnerability count does not establish event frequency, business loss or the multiplication used in ALE.

C:

A reserve decision may be prudent but is not evidence that the reported ALE calculation and parameters are justified.

D:

The original SLE is $200,000; relabeling expected annual loss as maximum one-event loss is conceptually wrong.

Question 73

A risk dashboard lists exposure before security controls and labels that number as current residual risk. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Relabel all current risk scores as residual without measuring whether installed controls work.
  2. Measure inherent exposure separately from residual exposure after current controls and their effectiveness.
  3. Subtract the number of installed controls from the inherent risk score as though every control is equally effective.
  4. Calculate residual risk using only pre-treatment threats and ignore operating control failures.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Residual risk reflects remaining exposure after controls; inherent risk is measured before treatment. The existence of a control does not prove it is effective in a given environment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Labels cannot substitute for estimating post-control likelihood and impact.

C:

Control counts do not quantify actual risk reduction or resulting exposure.

D:

A pre-control assessment cannot describe the exposure remaining after actual treatments.

Question 74

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A risk dashboard lists exposure before security controls and labels that number as current residual risk. The approved response was: Measure inherent exposure separately from residual exposure after current controls and their effectiveness. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Every deployed control reduces likelihood to zero even if it is disabled or bypassed.
  2. The existence of a control does not prove it is effective in a given environment.
  3. Inherent risk should be measured only after compensating controls are active.
  4. Residual risk is identical to the amount paid for security products in the current budget.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Residual risk reflects remaining exposure after controls; inherent risk is measured before treatment. Risk records show pre-control and post-control impact/likelihood with testing evidence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Merely installing a control does not establish its operating effectiveness.

C:

Inherent risk is assessed before treatments; residual risk reflects their actual effect.

D:

Risk reflects likelihood and impact, not procurement expenditure.

Question 75

Management implemented a response after this event: A risk dashboard lists exposure before security controls and labels that number as current residual risk. The response was: Measure inherent exposure separately from residual exposure after current controls and their effectiveness. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A report lists 25 purchased controls but no before-and-after estimates of exposure.
  2. Risk records show pre-control and post-control impact/likelihood with testing evidence.
  3. The inherent risk score is copied into the residual column with no evidence of control operation.
  4. A security architecture diagram shows installed filters but no test results or adjusted likelihood and impact.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Risk records show pre-control and post-control impact/likelihood with testing evidence. Residual risk reflects remaining exposure after controls; inherent risk is measured before treatment.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Purchase counts do not show risk treatment effectiveness.

C:

Copying a pre-treatment estimate is not a post-treatment residual-risk evaluation.

D:

An architectural description is not a defensible measured residual-risk comparison.

Question 76

A company buys cyber insurance and claims that its ransomware likelihood is now zero. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Retain prevention and recovery controls while recognizing insurance transfers some financial impact, not the attack itself.
  2. Cancel malware defenses and backup testing once the cyber insurance policy is signed.
  3. Assume the insurer will directly restore encrypted files and maintain services during ransomware.
  4. Accept every ransomware scenario as fully transferred without checking deductibles and exclusions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Risk transfer does not eliminate operational, reputational, legal or availability consequences. Policy exclusions, deductibles and limits must be included in accepted-risk analysis.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Insurance may transfer limited financial loss, not eliminate the operational attack or recovery need.

C:

Coverage terms do not inherently supply technical eradication, recovery or availability.

D:

Policy limits and uncovered impacts can remain with the insured organization.

Question 77

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A company buys cyber insurance and claims that its ransomware likelihood is now zero. The approved response was: Retain prevention and recovery controls while recognizing insurance transfers some financial impact, not the attack itself. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Cyber insurance guarantees ransomware attempts can no longer compromise systems.
  2. Policy exclusions, deductibles and limits must be included in accepted-risk analysis.
  3. An insurance limit covers unlimited regulatory penalties and reputational harm in all circumstances.
  4. Buying a policy removes the need to rehearse restoration because the insurance payment equals service recovery.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Risk transfer does not eliminate operational, reputational, legal or availability consequences. Coverage and recovery drills show bounded insured losses and remaining uninsured exposure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Financial risk transfer does not change exploit probability or attacker behavior.

C:

Deductibles, exclusions and uninsurable exposures may remain.

D:

A payment cannot substitute for operational capability to recover business services.

Question 78

Management implemented a response after this event: A company buys cyber insurance and claims that its ransomware likelihood is now zero. The response was: Retain prevention and recovery controls while recognizing insurance transfers some financial impact, not the attack itself. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The policy premium has been paid, but no one has reviewed exclusions or performed a restore.
  2. Insurer marketing materials promise cyber resilience while backups remain untested and coverage gaps unidentified.
  3. Coverage and recovery drills show bounded insured losses and remaining uninsured exposure.
  4. A finance dashboard shows adequate cash reserves but the company cannot restore a critical application.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Coverage and recovery drills show bounded insured losses and remaining uninsured exposure. Risk transfer does not eliminate operational, reputational, legal or availability consequences.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Payment proves insurance purchase, not risk treatment completeness.

B:

Sales assurances do not substantiate current residual operational and financial risk.

D:

Liquidity does not prove ransomware protection or recovery capability.

Question 79

A public API accepts uploads later parsed by an internal privileged service, but design diagrams omit the parser trust boundary. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Model data flows, trust boundaries, privilege transitions and abuse cases before selecting protections.
  2. Mark the upload parser as trusted because it runs inside the internal network.
  3. Run only an antivirus scan on uploaded file extensions and omit the trust-boundary data flow.
  4. Wait for a production exploit before modeling who can call the internal parsing service.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Threat modeling finds attack paths where untrusted input crosses privileges or trust zones. The model must be updated after material architecture changes rather than frozen at design approval.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Internal placement does not remove the privilege transition from attacker-supplied bytes.

C:

Extension scanning misses parser abuse cases and privileged downstream processing paths.

D:

Threat modeling should precede exposure and represent untrusted-to-privileged flow.

Question 80

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A public API accepts uploads later parsed by an internal privileged service, but design diagrams omit the parser trust boundary. The approved response was: Model data flows, trust boundaries, privilege transitions and abuse cases before selecting protections. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. One diagram approved before launch remains sufficient after the parser acquires new privileged access.
  2. Marking the public API as authenticated guarantees uploaded content is safe to parse at higher privilege.
  3. The model must be updated after material architecture changes rather than frozen at design approval.
  4. File extension validation alone eliminates all parser and deserialization attack paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Threat modeling finds attack paths where untrusted input crosses privileges or trust zones. Review records document attack paths, mitigations and negative parser authorization tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Changing data flows and permissions invalidate unreviewed threat assumptions.

B:

An authenticated user can still supply malicious input across a trust boundary.

D:

Parsing content and privilege transitions require deeper controls than suffix checks.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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