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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 9

Question 80

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A public API accepts uploads later parsed by an internal privileged service, but design diagrams omit the parser trust boundary. The approved response was: Model data flows, trust boundaries, privilege transitions and abuse cases before selecting protections. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. One diagram approved before launch remains sufficient after the parser acquires new privileged access.
  2. Marking the public API as authenticated guarantees uploaded content is safe to parse at higher privilege.
  3. The model must be updated after material architecture changes rather than frozen at design approval.
  4. File extension validation alone eliminates all parser and deserialization attack paths.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Threat modeling finds attack paths where untrusted input crosses privileges or trust zones. Review records document attack paths, mitigations and negative parser authorization tests.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Changing data flows and permissions invalidate unreviewed threat assumptions.

B:

An authenticated user can still supply malicious input across a trust boundary.

D:

Parsing content and privilege transitions require deeper controls than suffix checks.

Question 81

Management implemented a response after this event: A public API accepts uploads later parsed by an internal privileged service, but design diagrams omit the parser trust boundary. The response was: Model data flows, trust boundaries, privilege transitions and abuse cases before selecting protections. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The API has a TLS certificate, but no negative tests address privileged parsing of malicious uploads.
  2. A diagram omits the parser process yet a routine endpoint scan reports no findings.
  3. Review records document attack paths, mitigations and negative parser authorization tests.
  4. A sample file uploads successfully, with no malicious-input authorization or parser isolation tests.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Review records document attack paths, mitigations and negative parser authorization tests. Threat modeling finds attack paths where untrusted input crosses privileges or trust zones.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Transport security does not test the relevant trust-boundary abuse case.

B:

A missing trust boundary remains untested by an unrelated scan.

D:

Normal feature behavior cannot establish resistance to attacker-controlled input crossing privilege boundaries.

Question 82

A message relay has authenticated users but attackers can alter event payloads between queue publication and audit storage. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Rely only on sender login authentication while permitting alteration of queued messages in transit.
  2. Identify tampering at the transport/storage trust boundary and require authenticated message integrity checks.
  3. Encrypt stored audit data without authenticating intermediate message transformations.
  4. Filter events based solely on their claimed producer name without verifying event tags or sequence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Authentication of a sender session alone does not guarantee that downstream bytes are unchanged. Integrity keys and processing-order protection must account for replay or substituted messages.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Session authentication is not end-to-end payload integrity across the queue-to-audit path.

C:

At-rest secrecy cannot independently detect forged event contents.

D:

An unauthenticated identity field can be forged or replayed.

Question 83

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A message relay has authenticated users but attackers can alter event payloads between queue publication and audit storage. The approved response was: Identify tampering at the transport/storage trust boundary and require authenticated message integrity checks. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A valid initial login guarantees every downstream event byte remains unchanged.
  2. An integrity MAC prevents any attacker from replaying an old signed message.
  3. Encrypting payloads at rest automatically identifies who modified a message inside the processing chain.
  4. Integrity keys and processing-order protection must account for replay or substituted messages.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Authentication of a sender session alone does not guarantee that downstream bytes are unchanged. A modified queued message is rejected and the attempted alteration is logged.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A legitimate session can still have payloads modified after publication.

B:

Authenticated integrity does not by itself give freshness or anti-replay sequencing.

C:

Confidentiality is not an end-to-end modification attribution mechanism.

Question 84

Management implemented a response after this event: A message relay has authenticated users but attackers can alter event payloads between queue publication and audit storage. The response was: Identify tampering at the transport/storage trust boundary and require authenticated message integrity checks. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A modified queued message is rejected and the attempted alteration is logged.
  2. Producers authenticate to the queue, but mutated records are still accepted into audit storage.
  3. The audit store uses encryption while tampered message contents are committed unchanged.
  4. A log shows the queue connection stayed open, with no injected-tampering or replay rejection trial.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A modified queued message is rejected and the attempted alteration is logged. Authentication of a sender session alone does not guarantee that downstream bytes are unchanged.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Producer authentication without end-to-end verification misses the alteration.

C:

Encrypted storage does not prove incoming data integrity.

D:

Connection uptime is not evidence of authenticated event contents.

Question 85

A software vendor refuses to identify embedded libraries despite a recent vulnerable package disclosure. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Approve the software vendor because it publishes a glossy security overview without dependency details.
  2. Accept a dependency list without versions, update ownership or vulnerability response commitments.
  3. Require a usable software bill of materials, vulnerability response commitments and supplier validation.
  4. Ban all third-party libraries immediately without reviewing business impact or affected versions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Supply-chain transparency enables dependency exposure assessment and coordinated remediation. An SBOM documents components but does not by itself prove absence of exploitation or vulnerabilities.

Incorrect Answers

A:

High-level assurances cannot identify which embedded packages are affected by a specific advisory.

B:

Incomplete component identification impedes identifying and remediating a known vulnerable library.

D:

Indiscriminate removal fails to establish a governed supplier vulnerability management approach.

Question 86

A supplier provides an SBOM naming software packages but omits their versions and stable identifiers. An exploit has just been disclosed in one embedded library. What is the MOST consequential limitation of the supplier inventory for determining affected product releases?

  1. Unversioned components cannot be reliably matched to affected library ranges or exact shipped builds without traceable identifiers and applicability analysis.
  2. Every shipped release is automatically affected whenever a component name appears in a vulnerability bulletin.
  3. A supplier assertion that the product is safe replaces the need to identify component versions and vulnerability status.
  4. A list of direct package names proves that all transitive libraries and patched product versions were also inventoried.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A component name alone cannot distinguish affected release ranges or identify the supplier builds requiring remediation; usable versioned identity and vulnerability applicability evidence are needed.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Version, build, configuration, and vulnerability applicability must be checked; a name match alone overstates scope.

C:

Unsupported sales assurance cannot establish which shipped builds include the vulnerable dependency.

D:

A partial unversioned list misses transitive dependencies and cannot establish the exact affected release inventory.

Question 87

Management implemented a response after this event: A software vendor refuses to identify embedded libraries despite a recent vulnerable package disclosure. The response was: Require a usable software bill of materials, vulnerability response commitments and supplier validation. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. An affected component is located across purchased products with accountable remediation timelines.
  2. A PDF brochure says the vendor uses secure development, but cannot locate the disclosed vulnerable dependency.
  3. The vendor has an SBOM file with missing versions and no accountable patch milestones.
  4. Supplier staff complete annual training while affected product releases remain unidentified.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

An affected component is located across purchased products with accountable remediation timelines. Supply-chain transparency enables dependency exposure assessment and coordinated remediation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Marketing controls do not demonstrate package-level impact analysis.

C:

An unusable inventory does not support specific vulnerability remediation decisions.

D:

Training cannot show which products contain the disclosed package or when fixes ship.

Question 88

A network switch batch arrives with broken tamper seals and inconsistent manufacturing identifiers. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Install the suspect switches because they boot and the firmware checksum matches a public value.
  2. Quarantine suspect devices and validate provenance through trusted procurement and vendor channels before deployment.
  3. Erase packaging photographs and relabel serial numbers before asset registration.
  4. Ask the same unverified reseller to self-certify authenticity without independent vendor validation.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Untrusted hardware provenance may defeat software configuration and postinstallation scanning. A clean firmware hash alone cannot establish a counterfeit device's physical supply-chain integrity.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Basic operation and one hash cannot establish trustworthy device provenance.

C:

Removing anomaly evidence obstructs investigation of possible counterfeit hardware.

D:

An untrusted supply-chain actor cannot alone resolve suspicious manufacturing discrepancies.

Question 89

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A network switch batch arrives with broken tamper seals and inconsistent manufacturing identifiers. The approved response was: Quarantine suspect devices and validate provenance through trusted procurement and vendor channels before deployment. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A clean firmware hash alone cannot establish a counterfeit device's physical supply-chain integrity.
  2. A clean firmware digest guarantees every physical component and manufacturing identifier is authentic.
  3. Factory-resetting a device establishes a trusted supply chain even after tamper seals are broken.
  4. Valid network connectivity is sufficient evidence that the device was supplied through authorized channels.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Untrusted hardware provenance may defeat software configuration and postinstallation scanning. Receiving records, serial verification and vendor attestations clear or reject each suspect unit.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Firmware integrity cannot establish hardware provenance or detect all counterfeit modifications.

C:

A reset does not reconstruct custody or physical component authenticity.

D:

Functional behavior is independent of the device’s manufacturing and procurement history.

Question 90

Management implemented a response after this event: A network switch batch arrives with broken tamper seals and inconsistent manufacturing identifiers. The response was: Quarantine suspect devices and validate provenance through trusted procurement and vendor channels before deployment. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The switches forward packets in a lab but serial records still disagree with manufacturer information.
  2. The reseller signs an informal email while tamper-seal anomalies and receiving records remain unresolved.
  3. An antivirus scan finds no malicious processes but the chassis model identifiers do not match vendor records.
  4. Receiving records, serial verification and vendor attestations clear or reject each suspect unit.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Receiving records, serial verification and vendor attestations clear or reject each suspect unit. Untrusted hardware provenance may defeat software configuration and postinstallation scanning.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Connectivity does not validate suspect provenance.

B:

Uncorroborated supplier assertions are not independent authenticity evidence.

C:

Software scanning cannot validate counterfeit hardware or chain of custody.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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