Pass ISC CISSP Exam in First Attempt Easily
Real ISC CISSP Exam Questions, Accurate & Verified Answers As Experienced in the Actual Test!

Verified by experts
3 products

You save $69.98

CISSP Premium Bundle

  • Premium File 484 Questions & Answers
  • Last Update: Oct 31, 2026
  • Training Course 62 Lectures
  • Study Guide 2003 Pages
$79.99 $149.97

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    484 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Oct 31, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    62 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    2003 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 4

Question 30

Which assessment artifact BEST proves that a control catalog was correctly tailored?

  1. A screenshot showing all catalog control names copied into a slide.
  2. An installation receipt for every catalog software product.
  3. An email saying the team chose a 'best-practice' framework.
  4. An applicability matrix links each inclusion or exclusion to business scope, risk owner, evidence and compensating controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Traceability demonstrates reasoned selection and justified exceptions against actual requirements.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Copying names does not show application, justification or effectiveness.

B:

Tools do not cover every control type, and procurement does not prove applicability.

C:

Framework popularity is not evidence that individual control choices fit this environment.

Question 31

A cloud vendor proposes replicating regulated personal records outside permitted jurisdictions without notifying the controller. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Encrypt the unapproved overseas replica and proceed without transfer approval.
  2. Conduct jurisdictional transfer and processing assessment and establish lawful, contractual and technical safeguards before replication.
  3. Change the region label in the vendor console while retaining the unauthorized replication route.
  4. Assume the processor can approve new jurisdictions because it owns the cloud infrastructure.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Location and contractual transfer requirements can apply independently of encryption or authentication. An overseas subprocesser may introduce additional onward transfers even if the initial region is compliant.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Encryption is useful but cannot replace lawful processing basis, location restrictions or controller authorization.

C:

Cosmetic metadata cannot establish where backup and processing copies actually reside.

D:

A processor cannot unilaterally change the controller’s approved purposes and transfer safeguards.

Question 32

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A cloud vendor proposes replicating regulated personal records outside permitted jurisdictions without notifying the controller. The approved response was: Conduct jurisdictional transfer and processing assessment and establish lawful, contractual and technical safeguards before replication. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. An overseas subprocesser may introduce additional onward transfers even if the initial region is compliant.
  2. Approval of the primary hosting region guarantees every subprocesser and support export remains there.
  3. Encryption alone eliminates all applicable transfer-notice and contractual obligations.
  4. One controller signature automatically covers unrelated future destinations and new processing purposes.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Location and contractual transfer requirements can apply independently of encryption or authentication. Data-flow maps and enforceable vendor restrictions show every approved storage and transfer location.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Downstream subcontractors and operational exports can create additional cross-border transfers.

C:

Cryptographic protection does not displace regional legal processing and transfer requirements.

D:

Scope changes require reassessment of authorized locations and contractual permissions.

Question 33

Management implemented a response after this event: A cloud vendor proposes replicating regulated personal records outside permitted jurisdictions without notifying the controller. The response was: Conduct jurisdictional transfer and processing assessment and establish lawful, contractual and technical safeguards before replication. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Data-flow maps and enforceable vendor restrictions show every approved storage and transfer location.
  2. The vendor shows an encrypted-volume badge but cannot map replica and support-export locations.
  3. The cloud console displays the approved primary region while backup logs show an unapproved overseas destination.
  4. A contract names the primary provider but lists no onward processors or tested location restrictions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Data-flow maps and enforceable vendor restrictions show every approved storage and transfer location. Location and contractual transfer requirements can apply independently of encryption or authentication.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Encryption-status screenshots do not prove geographically authorized processing flows.

C:

Primary-region reporting omits a material unauthorized data-transfer path.

D:

A provider name alone cannot establish full approved data-flow scope.

Question 34

A loan application asks for detailed medical history even though eligibility needs only income and identity data. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Collect the medical details now and hide them behind a password-protected form.
  2. Retain all requested health fields for optional future business analytics.
  3. Apply purpose limitation and data minimization before collecting the unnecessary health attributes.
  4. Remove visible health labels from the form while still transmitting all health values to a back-end database.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Less unnecessary personal data reduces exposure and aligns collection with a documented legitimate purpose. A lawful collection purpose does not itself authorize perpetual retention or unrelated later use.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Access controls do not justify collecting sensitive information unrelated to the eligibility purpose.

B:

Hypothetical future uses do not satisfy a presently documented and limited collection purpose.

D:

Changing field labels does not reduce actual sensitive-data collection or exposure.

Question 35

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A loan application asks for detailed medical history even though eligibility needs only income and identity data. The approved response was: Apply purpose limitation and data minimization before collecting the unnecessary health attributes. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. If a customer consents once, the lender may store unnecessary medical history forever.
  2. An encrypted database makes excess personal information harmless and exempt from minimization.
  3. A lawful collection purpose does not itself authorize perpetual retention or unrelated later use.
  4. Deleting a name column guarantees that detailed medical profiles can never identify a borrower.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Less unnecessary personal data reduces exposure and aligns collection with a documented legitimate purpose. Application fields and logs contain only documented necessary data for the specified eligibility purpose.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Consent or another lawful basis does not remove purpose and retention constraints.

B:

Encryption can reduce disclosure risk but cannot eliminate unnecessary processing.

D:

Auxiliary attributes and joins can reidentify a person even without direct names.

Question 36

Management implemented a response after this event: A loan application asks for detailed medical history even though eligibility needs only income and identity data. The response was: Apply purpose limitation and data minimization before collecting the unnecessary health attributes. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Application fields and logs contain only documented necessary data for the specified eligibility purpose.
  2. A privacy notice is published while the loan API still accepts and stores complete medical histories.
  3. The medical columns are hidden on the screen but preserved in exported application events.
  4. All applicants accepted a lengthy terms page, with no comparison of stored fields to actual eligibility requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Application fields and logs contain only documented necessary data for the specified eligibility purpose. Less unnecessary personal data reduces exposure and aligns collection with a documented legitimate purpose.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A notice does not demonstrate that unnecessary attributes were excluded from collection.

C:

Presentation changes do not show that underlying personal-data processing has been minimized.

D:

Acceptance metrics are not evidence that sensitive fields are necessary to the specified business purpose.

Question 37

A scheduled deletion job will purge customer records that have reached their retention date, but several are covered by an active litigation preservation notice. What must the data owner do before execution?

  1. Allow automatic deletion to run because the original retention period has ended.
  2. Apply a documented, precisely scoped legal hold to affected records, suspend their destruction and retain authorized access and chain-of-custody evidence.
  3. Export held records to uncontrolled personal email accounts and delete the originals.
  4. Place every record in the organization on permanent hold without identifying relevant litigation scope.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A valid preservation duty can override routine deletion for in-scope information; approved normal disposal should continue for unrelated expired records.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An active preservation obligation can supersede ordinary expiration for the specified evidence.

C:

Uncontrolled distribution undermines privacy, authenticity and evidence custody.

D:

A blanket indefinite hold is not proportionate and defeats legitimate retention minimization.

Question 38

A legal hold correctly prevents deletion of specified records. Which ongoing governance condition prevents the hold from creating unnecessary indefinite retention?

  1. Remove the hold whenever a storage administrator needs additional disk space.
  2. Consider all held records public because they are retained beyond the normal calendar date.
  3. Never record the start date or matter owner because the hold is legally privileged.
  4. Regularly reconcile the hold’s scope, responsible authority, legal status and explicit release decision before resuming approved disposal.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Legal preservation needs documented owners and eventual release. Expired, nonessential data should not remain forever merely because a hold once existed.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Storage pressure is not authority to destroy legally preserved evidence.

B:

Preservation does not change confidentiality or access permissions.

C:

A controlled legal-hold register needs enough metadata for accountability and scope management.

Question 39

A company claims its retention engine honors legal holds without keeping unrelated customer records indefinitely. What test evidence is strongest?

  1. A report shows deletion jobs succeeded, but held records were included and cannot be recovered.
  2. All customer data is still present years after expiry regardless of hold classification.
  3. Expired unheld samples are verifiably disposed of, while held samples remain intact under restricted access until the authorized release event.
  4. The legal team approved a policy document, but the deletion job’s treatment of hold flags is never exercised.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Testing both outcomes establishes preservation and routine disposal under separate, documented rules.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Job completion that destroys preserved records proves a control failure.

B:

Universal retention hides the absence of expiration enforcement and fails minimization.

D:

A policy is not proof that the enforcement logic protects evidence in real deletion runs.

Question 40

An outsourced security operations team copies proprietary threat-intelligence data into an unapproved public repository. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Mark the threat feed internal-only but leave its licensed contents mirrored in the public repository.
  2. Assume that paying for a feed also grants unlimited onward publication to community users.
  3. Change the repository filename and keep republishing the same proprietary indicators.
  4. Validate license and intellectual-property permissions, remove unauthorized copies and establish redistribution controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Authorized access to a feed does not automatically grant redistribution or open publication rights. License compliance alone does not prove sensitive details are safely redacted for sharing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A new label does not remove impermissible public redistribution of proprietary material.

B:

A license to access content is not automatically a right to redistribute or sublicense it.

C:

Renaming files does not satisfy license conditions or prevent unauthorized distribution.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

Purchase Individually

  • Premium File

    484 Questions & Answers
    Last Update: Oct 31, 2026

    $76.99
    $69.99
  • Training Course

    62 Lectures

    $43.99
    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    2003 Pages

    $43.99
    $39.99

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF
This is ONE TIME OFFER

You save
10%

Enter Your Email Address to Receive Your 10% Off Discount Code

SPECIAL OFFER: GET 10% OFF

You save
10%

Use Discount Code:

A confirmation link was sent to your e-mail.

Please check your mailbox for a message from support@examlabs.com and follow the directions.

Download Free Demo of VCE Exam Simulator

Experience Avanset VCE Exam Simulator for yourself.

Simply submit your email address below to get started with our interactive software demo of your free trial.

  • Realistic exam simulation and exam editor with preview functions
  • Whole exam in a single file with several different question types
  • Customizable exam-taking mode & detailed score reports