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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 5

Question 40

An outsourced security operations team copies proprietary threat-intelligence data into an unapproved public repository. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Mark the threat feed internal-only but leave its licensed contents mirrored in the public repository.
  2. Assume that paying for a feed also grants unlimited onward publication to community users.
  3. Change the repository filename and keep republishing the same proprietary indicators.
  4. Validate license and intellectual-property permissions, remove unauthorized copies and establish redistribution controls.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Authorized access to a feed does not automatically grant redistribution or open publication rights. License compliance alone does not prove sensitive details are safely redacted for sharing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A new label does not remove impermissible public redistribution of proprietary material.

B:

A license to access content is not automatically a right to redistribute or sublicense it.

C:

Renaming files does not satisfy license conditions or prevent unauthorized distribution.

Question 41

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An outsourced security operations team copies proprietary threat-intelligence data into an unapproved public repository. The approved response was: Validate license and intellectual-property permissions, remove unauthorized copies and establish redistribution controls. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. An active feed subscription means any exported indicators can be redistributed without further terms.
  2. Scrubbing customer IPs from the feed guarantees its publisher allows open licensing.
  3. License compliance alone does not prove sensitive details are safely redacted for sharing.
  4. A license check proves the resulting shared file cannot disclose confidential customer context.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Authorized access to a feed does not automatically grant redistribution or open publication rights. Usage records show permitted recipients, license terms and removal of prohibited copies.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Permitted recipients and uses remain governed by the actual license and intellectual-property obligations.

B:

Privacy redaction is distinct from permission to distribute copyrighted or restricted content.

D:

Distribution rights do not establish that the material has been appropriately sanitized for sensitivity.

Question 42

Management implemented a response after this event: An outsourced security operations team copies proprietary threat-intelligence data into an unapproved public repository. The response was: Validate license and intellectual-property permissions, remove unauthorized copies and establish redistribution controls. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. Usage records show permitted recipients, license terms and removal of prohibited copies.
  2. The repository has many stars and visitors but no proof public copies were removed under the license.
  3. The vendor invoice is paid, while download permissions still expose licensed data to the internet.
  4. An anonymization script runs, but the repository remains publicly downloadable outside the permitted audience.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Usage records show permitted recipients, license terms and removal of prohibited copies. Authorized access to a feed does not automatically grant redistribution or open publication rights.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Popularity provides no evidence of authorized recipient controls or completed takedown.

C:

Payment for access alone cannot establish compliance with redistribution restrictions.

D:

Redaction is not the same as enforcing the permitted license recipients and use cases.

Question 43

A suspected insider-fraud event may require a criminal referral. Before responders inspect or image an employee workstation containing personal information, what is the BEST management decision?

  1. Open and edit the original suspect workstation files to make the evidence easier to interpret.
  2. Send the unsealed drive directly to an investigator without documenting transfer authority or custody.
  3. Rely only on a single screenshot of suspect files and discard the underlying media.
  4. Obtain and document appropriate investigative authority and scope, then preserve the original evidence using a competent authorized forensic collection process.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Legally permitted scope and accountable approval must be established before intrusive evidence acquisition. A forensically pristine image still can be unusable if search authorization or jurisdiction is improper.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Direct modification changes the original artifact state and weakens defensible forensic integrity.

B:

Untracked possession and missing authorization jeopardize the evidentiary history.

C:

A screenshot lacks recoverable metadata and repeatable imaging needed for a defensible investigation.

Question 44

A forensic disk image is perfectly hash-matched to its original, but the investigator exceeded the approved employee search scope. What is the MOST material remaining governance issue?

  1. A matching disk-image hash proves that collection was legally authorized in every jurisdiction.
  2. Forensic imaging guarantees every volatile memory artifact remains available after power-down.
  3. A technically sound image may still be inadmissible if authorization or jurisdiction is improper.
  4. The evidence is independently admissible because the collection tool displayed a success message.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Image integrity establishes that bytes were preserved, not that the investigation respected lawful authority and jurisdiction. The authorized purpose and scope must be recorded to support defensible use.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hash integrity cannot establish search authority, employee privacy compliance or admissibility.

B:

A disk image does not capture RAM state lost when a system is switched off.

D:

Tool completion does not validate lawful scope or the complete chain of custody.

Question 45

An employee-device investigation is being prepared for a possible criminal referral. Which records BEST establish the investigation complied with authority and scope while preserving evidence integrity?

  1. The case file contains documented legal authority and collection scope, hash-verified source images, examiner identities, and custody transfers.
  2. An investigator writes down a copied filename but has no acquisition hashes or transfer log.
  3. A help desk ticket says the laptop was inspected, but source media was repeatedly opened and modified.
  4. Only a screenshot of a suspicious file is stored, with no authorized examiner or custody identification.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Appropriate authority and scoped acquisition should be independently traceable alongside evidence preservation. Checksums alone cannot establish lawful investigation or legitimate employee-data handling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Filename notes cannot prove that forensic copies match the original evidence or track custody.

C:

Task completion does not document preservation of originals or repeatable acquisition.

D:

A screenshot cannot independently reconstruct integrity, scope and handling of forensic material.

Question 46

A regulator requests proof of access-review enforcement, and IT proposes giving auditors production administrator access. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Give the regulator full production administrator credentials so it can inspect every system directly.
  2. Provide scoped, independently traceable review evidence through an authorized audit channel.
  3. Provide a blank compliance certificate without dated access-review population or decisions.
  4. Ask administrators to reconstruct access-review approvals from memory and omit actual privilege data.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audit assurance should verify control operation without creating unnecessary privileged access. One successful access review does not prove the entire period or population was covered.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Excessive access expands risk and does not substitute for scoped independent audit evidence.

C:

An assertion of compliance cannot demonstrate operating effectiveness over the audit period.

D:

Unverifiable recollections cannot support traceable assurance of reviewed entitlements.

Question 47

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A regulator requests proof of access-review enforcement, and IT proposes giving auditors production administrator access. The approved response was: Provide scoped, independently traceable review evidence through an authorized audit channel. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. One sampled successful access review proves all accounts were reviewed throughout the entire year.
  2. Giving auditors write access to production eliminates independence problems by letting them implement controls.
  3. One successful access review does not prove the entire period or population was covered.
  4. An approved review policy demonstrates that every expired permission was actually revoked.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Audit assurance should verify control operation without creating unnecessary privileged access. Sampled dated reviews reconcile all relevant identities, decisions and timely removal actions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A single sample cannot establish period completeness or population coverage.

B:

Audit assurance should not rely on creating operational privileges or self-remediation.

D:

Policy existence is not evidence of timely operation and removal actions.

Question 48

Management implemented a response after this event: A regulator requests proof of access-review enforcement, and IT proposes giving auditors production administrator access. The response was: Provide scoped, independently traceable review evidence through an authorized audit channel. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A policy requires quarterly reviews, but no sampled privilege decisions or removals are retained.
  2. An administrator grants a regulator unrestricted access, with no independent dated review records.
  3. A spreadsheet shows 100 percent review completion without identity lists or remediation timestamps.
  4. Sampled dated reviews reconcile all relevant identities, decisions and timely removal actions.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Sampled dated reviews reconcile all relevant identities, decisions and timely removal actions. Audit assurance should verify control operation without creating unnecessary privileged access.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A declared requirement does not prove it happened for the population and relevant period.

B:

Broader access is a new exposure, not evidence that review controls operated.

C:

An aggregate percentage cannot reconcile individual entitlements and their actual removal.

Question 49

A team confuses a voluntary engineering guide with a mandatory corporate authentication standard. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Allow every team to interpret the voluntary guidance as a mandatory rule without approval.
  2. Call the authentication standard a guideline while continuing to enforce it unpredictably.
  3. Define an approved policy hierarchy: policy intent, mandatory standards, implementable procedures and optional guidelines.
  4. Publish detailed scripts without specifying any approved policy authority or standard requirements.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Governance documents have different normative force; compliance needs clear ownership and exceptions. Document publication does not ensure personnel understand or apply the mandatory standard.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An ambiguous document hierarchy creates inconsistent audit and exception obligations.

B:

Renaming a mandatory control obscures what users must follow and who can approve exceptions.

D:

Procedures alone do not establish why a control is compulsory or which exceptions are legitimate.

Question 50

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A team confuses a voluntary engineering guide with a mandatory corporate authentication standard. The approved response was: Define an approved policy hierarchy: policy intent, mandatory standards, implementable procedures and optional guidelines. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Once a policy is published, employee compliance is guaranteed without technical enforcement or awareness.
  2. Every implementation guideline is legally binding even when designated optional by the policy owner.
  3. A runbook can override a higher-priority mandatory standard whenever operations prefer it.
  4. Document publication does not ensure personnel understand or apply the mandatory standard.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Governance documents have different normative force; compliance needs clear ownership and exceptions. Audited deployments trace the policy to enforceable standards, runbooks and approved exceptions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Publication cannot establish that required authentication controls are deployed and used.

B:

Normative force depends on the approved document hierarchy, not technical detail alone.

C:

Procedures should implement authorized standards; bypass requires approved exception handling.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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