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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 47

Question 460

An external audit issued a serious access-control finding, but the team closes it on receipt of a remediation ticket. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Close a critical access-control audit finding when a remediation ticket is created, before testing the deployed change.
  2. Let the same implementer assert the finding resolved without independent retest evidence.
  3. Hide the issue from the next audit report because management approved a future deadline.
  4. Require independent retesting and evidence of sustainable remediation before closing the finding.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A created ticket or planned change is not proof that the control works. A successful spot check may still require monitoring to detect recurrence.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A planned fix is not evidence that forbidden access was actually removed.

B:

Self-attestation is weaker than validated operating effectiveness.

C:

An approved schedule does not equal corrected or accepted risk.

Question 461

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An external audit issued a serious access-control finding, but the team closes it on receipt of a remediation ticket. The approved response was: Require independent retesting and evidence of sustainable remediation before closing the finding. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. One successful negative-access spot check proves the weakness can never recur in the wider fleet.
  2. Ticket closure automatically invalidates old privilege grants without a configuration or access test.
  3. An audit finding is remediated as soon as an engineer writes a design proposal.
  4. A successful spot check may still require monitoring to detect recurrence.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A created ticket or planned change is not proof that the control works. The closure record contains observed access-denial evidence and management acceptance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sampling limits and ongoing change can require continued monitoring.

B:

Workflow status does not establish enforcement in deployed systems.

C:

Plans must be implemented and supported with actual observation.

Question 462

Management implemented a response after this event: An external audit issued a serious access-control finding, but the team closes it on receipt of a remediation ticket. The response was: Require independent retesting and evidence of sustainable remediation before closing the finding. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The issue tracker shows Done, but the previously forbidden principal still reads the protected object.
  2. The closure record contains observed access-denial evidence and management acceptance.
  3. A remediation memo is signed by the implementer with no independent attempted-bypass evidence.
  4. A one-time spot check passes while recurring control drift after each deployment is not tracked.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

The closure record contains observed access-denial evidence and management acceptance. A created ticket or planned change is not proof that the control works.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ticket closure is not a successful control test.

C:

Approval cannot substitute for observed denial of the original failure mode.

D:

One result needs appropriate sustained-effectiveness monitoring to support closure.

Question 463

An insider-fraud investigator opens original files on the suspect’s USB drive, edits directory metadata and records no custody transfers. What procedure BEST preserves evidentiary defensibility?

  1. Continue editing the original until the investigation looks complete, then compute a final hash.
  2. Use an ordinary file copy without acquisition logs and assume a matching filename establishes authenticity.
  3. Email the suspect’s entire device contents to all managers as the initial review step.
  4. Obtain authorized forensic acquisition, preserve the original, create verifiable copies and record hashes, handling and every custody transfer.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Evidence integrity and a traceable chain of custody allow an independent examiner to verify that analysis was performed on controlled copies rather than altered originals.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A final hash cannot prove what was present before uncontrolled modification.

B:

Names do not establish bitwise integrity, source, authorization or custody.

C:

Uncontrolled dissemination expands privacy exposure and defeats protected evidence custody.

Question 464

An examiner creates a bit-for-bit image and records matching SHA-256 hashes before and after copying. What additional fact is necessary to make the forensic process defensible?

  1. Document lawful collection authority and a continuous, attributable chain of custody, including transfers and examination actions.
  2. Assume a hash match automatically establishes legal permission to seize the device.
  3. Erase the original after imaging without consulting its preservation obligation.
  4. Let any employee take the image home without a custody record because the hash will not change.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Matching hashes support data integrity but do not by themselves show lawful acquisition, correct source handling or who controlled the evidence.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Technical integrity does not create jurisdictional authorization or a lawful investigation scope.

C:

Evidence preservation rules may require the source and documented destruction approval; copying does not license immediate deletion.

D:

Uncontrolled custody creates access and authenticity uncertainties despite identical byte hashes.

Question 465

A forensic team claims evidence from a suspected insider’s drive will withstand independent review. What evidence package MOST strongly supports the claim?

  1. A screenshot of the suspect’s desktop is stored without examiner name or source timestamp.
  2. A PDF says the drive looked normal after investigators changed original files.
  3. The forensic image’s file size is close to the expected disk size, with no hash or collection log.
  4. Legal authorization, acquisition records, original/copy hashes, write-protection controls and complete named custody transfers allow an independent examiner to reproduce findings.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Defensibility is established by both integrity and documented handling. Technical hashes alone are insufficient where collection or custody provenance is missing.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An unverified screenshot cannot establish the provenance or integrity of the relevant device evidence.

B:

Uncontrolled alteration prevents repeatable comparison to the original state.

C:

Approximate byte count does not prove exact acquisition, protected handling or legal authority.

Question 466

An incident responder plans to power off an infected workstation that may hold active attacker sessions in RAM. What is the BEST collection decision?

  1. Assess safety and authorization, collect relevant volatile evidence first when feasible, then preserve persistent media.
  2. Always pull the power cord immediately before deciding what evidence matters.
  3. Run unapproved forensic tools that alter unknown production data.
  4. Record only the machine's hostname and assume that identifies the attacker.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Power loss destroys RAM, running-process and connection-state evidence that may be crucial to containment.

Incorrect Answers

B:

An unconditional shutdown can irreversibly destroy volatile artifacts.

C:

Evidence collection requires authorized validated methods and documentation of unavoidable changes.

D:

A hostname is insufficient evidence of active sessions, process state or adversary identity.

Question 467

The responder captures RAM successfully. Which forensic limitation still matters?

  1. Capturing memory makes disk evidence unnecessary.
  2. Memory acquisition can modify system state and leak sensitive material; tool actions and custody must be documented.
  3. RAM remains intact after a device loses power.
  4. A file checksum alone proves legal authority to collect all memory contents.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A volatile capture is not inherently read-only, exhaustive or legally authorized.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Persistent artifacts and volatile state answer different investigative questions.

C:

Volatile memory generally cannot be relied on after shutdown.

D:

Hashes address integrity, not authorization or privacy.

Question 468

Which chain of evidence BEST demonstrates justified volatile-first collection?

  1. Authorized collection order, tool and time logs, volatile image hashes, noted system changes, and subsequent disk custody.
  2. A ticket says the computer was eventually rebooted.
  3. A screenshot of desktop wallpaper after the incident.
  4. An informal statement that memory forensics is generally useful.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The evidence describes why perishable state was collected and lets examiners verify handling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Reboot history cannot establish what volatile artifacts were preserved.

C:

A wallpaper image is unrelated to connection/process memory capture.

D:

General advice is not evidence of this system's actual acquisition and custody.

Question 469

A suspicious transaction spans server logs, firewall events and mobile-device records with inconsistent time zones. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Order all events by their displayed local clock strings without normalizing time zones or drift.
  2. Normalize timestamps and account for clock skew while preserving original timestamp metadata.
  3. Ignore original time metadata after converting every event to one manually chosen time zone.
  4. Rely on one firewall clock to certify every mobile and server event as perfectly synchronized.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Cross-source event ordering depends on time accuracy and documented conversion. A synchronized clock does not prove the logged identity was uncompromised.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Uncorrected clock differences can invert the true event sequence.

C:

Losing source context prevents independent reconstruction of the timeline assumptions.

D:

Cross-system clocks require observation, documented offsets and confidence bounds.

Question 470

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A suspicious transaction spans server logs, firewall events and mobile-device records with inconsistent time zones. The approved response was: Normalize timestamps and account for clock skew while preserving original timestamp metadata. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Synchronized timestamps guarantee that the account named in a log was controlled by its legitimate user.
  2. A converted UTC timestamp makes source log metadata unnecessary for legal and forensic review.
  3. Ordering events by file arrival time is always equivalent to ordering them by occurrence.
  4. A synchronized clock does not prove the logged identity was uncompromised.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Cross-source event ordering depends on time accuracy and documented conversion. A reproducible timeline shows confidence bounds and source event references.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Clock accuracy supports timing, not identity integrity when credentials may be compromised.

B:

The original timestamp and conversion assumptions must remain available.

C:

Collection delays and clock offsets can reorder observed events.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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