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Certified Information Systems Security Professional CISSP Practice Test 7

Question 60

Management implemented a response after this event: A hospital's recovery database is ready but patient access fails because its external identity provider is unavailable. The response was: Include external authentication and communication dependencies in continuity planning and recovery exercises. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. A storage restore completes with no errors while a doctor’s login still fails.
  2. An identity provider provides an SLA report, but the hospital has never exercised its alternate access.
  3. The database answers direct admin queries while actual authorized clinical users cannot load patient charts.
  4. End-to-end patient login and record retrieval pass an outage test despite a provider disruption.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

End-to-end patient login and record retrieval pass an outage test despite a provider disruption. Technical recovery of local compute is not complete business-process availability.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Backup health is not end-to-end patient service availability.

B:

Supplier statistics cannot validate the organization’s actual dependent workflow under failure.

C:

A technical database probe bypasses the affected identity and application dependencies.

Question 61

A departing contractor's SSO account is disabled but long-lived API tokens and badge access still work. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Disable only the contractor’s SSO password and assume every other session and physical credential expires.
  2. Delete all shared service accounts bearing the contractor’s initials without checking production dependencies.
  3. Coordinate HR-triggered identity, token, device and physical-access revocation with owner verification.
  4. Wait for the next quarterly access certification before removing API and badge privileges.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Offboarding must remove all effective access paths, not just interactive directory login. Shared service accounts must not be deleted blindly if they support production workflows.

Incorrect Answers

A:

API tokens and badges can continue to work independently of an interactive account.

B:

Indiscriminate deletion can cause outages and still leave personal long-lived tokens unrevoked.

D:

Delayed lifecycle action leaves a departing identity with effective access.

Question 62

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: A departing contractor's SSO account is disabled but long-lived API tokens and badge access still work. The approved response was: Coordinate HR-triggered identity, token, device and physical-access revocation with owner verification. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Disabling an SSO identity automatically invalidates every preissued API token and offline badge.
  2. An offboarding workflow may safely delete all service identities regardless of business dependencies.
  3. An access-review approval is permanent proof that no forgotten third-party access paths exist.
  4. Shared service accounts must not be deleted blindly if they support production workflows.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Offboarding must remove all effective access paths, not just interactive directory login. Post-termination negative login, API and badge tests prove access removal across systems.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Independent credentials and readers may not check the current directory revocation state.

B:

Shared production accounts require reassignment and review rather than blindly destructive revocation.

C:

Actual token, device and physical authorization need explicit reconciliation and tests.

Question 63

Management implemented a response after this event: A departing contractor's SSO account is disabled but long-lived API tokens and badge access still work. The response was: Coordinate HR-triggered identity, token, device and physical-access revocation with owner verification. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The directory shows the user disabled, while existing personal tokens still read protected APIs.
  2. An HR record marks the contract closed, but cloned badges continue to unlock the secure area.
  3. Post-termination negative login, API and badge tests prove access removal across systems.
  4. The user cannot use the SSO web page but a cached device session still accesses records.

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Post-termination negative login, API and badge tests prove access removal across systems. Offboarding must remove all effective access paths, not just interactive directory login.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A single directory flag does not prove effective removal of delegated credentials.

B:

Employment status is not evidence that physical enforcement has been updated.

D:

A negative interactive login alone omits noninteractive and persistent access routes.

Question 64

An administrator moves to an analyst role but retains approval and production deployment privileges. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Reprovision access for the new role and revoke conflicting privileges through the transfer workflow.
  2. Leave the administrator’s old deployment permissions active until the annual review.
  3. Add analyst rights on top of administrator rights without reconciling incompatible approvals.
  4. Disable the employee’s whole identity permanently rather than transition valid analyst duties.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Least privilege and separation of duties apply when roles change, not only on termination. Exception approval for a transition must be narrowly timed and monitored.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Dormant privileged rights after a role transfer violate least privilege and separation of duties.

C:

Accumulating entitlements does not remove dangerous combined role capabilities.

D:

Unnecessary account destruction can disrupt legitimate work without role-appropriate reprovisioning.

Question 65

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: An administrator moves to an analyst role but retains approval and production deployment privileges. The approved response was: Reprovision access for the new role and revoke conflicting privileges through the transfer workflow. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. A short transition exception needs no deadline if the employee’s manager originally approved admin access.
  2. Exception approval for a transition must be narrowly timed and monitored.
  3. Role changes cannot create separation-of-duties violations because employment continues.
  4. Adding the right new permissions automatically removes obsolete groups from the prior role.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Least privilege and separation of duties apply when roles change, not only on termination. Entitlement diff shows old privileged groups removed and new analyst access tested.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Temporary elevated rights need an explicit expiration and accountable monitoring.

C:

Inherited approvals can conflict with new analyst access and still require control.

D:

Granting entitlements does not imply revocation of existing role memberships.

Question 66

Management implemented a response after this event: An administrator moves to an analyst role but retains approval and production deployment privileges. The response was: Reprovision access for the new role and revoke conflicting privileges through the transfer workflow. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The analyst can open new reports, but old production deployment privileges still function.
  2. Entitlement diff shows old privileged groups removed and new analyst access tested.
  3. A manager approves the transfer in HR, but no entitlement diff or denial tests exist.
  4. An inventory lists the administrator group as rarely used, though the employee remains a member.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Entitlement diff shows old privileged groups removed and new analyst access tested. Least privilege and separation of duties apply when roles change, not only on termination.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Positive testing of a new role does not prove excessive legacy authority was revoked.

C:

A personnel event alone cannot establish the effective access transition.

D:

Low usage does not demonstrate removal of incompatible privileges.

Question 67

Operations accepts a major payment-fraud residual risk even though only the product owner can sign business exposure. As the accountable security practitioner, which response BEST addresses the specific weakness without introducing a different untested control?

  1. Let security operations sign the payment-fraud risk acceptance because it maintains the firewall.
  2. Escalate residual-risk treatment to the authorized business risk owner for time-bound documented acceptance.
  3. Close the fraud-risk ticket after documenting a low IT severity without consulting the product owner.
  4. Ask an external consultant to accept the organization’s residual fraud liability.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Risk acceptance is a management decision about business impact rather than a unilateral IT override. Changes in fraud frequency or exposure may invalidate an earlier authorized decision.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Technical administration does not transfer business risk acceptance authority.

C:

A technical severity score does not authorize accepting business fraud exposure.

D:

An adviser cannot replace the accountable internal business risk owner.

Question 68

The organization implemented the response to this scenario: Operations accepts a major payment-fraud residual risk even though only the product owner can sign business exposure. The approved response was: Escalate residual-risk treatment to the authorized business risk owner for time-bound documented acceptance. Which statement MOST accurately identifies a remaining risk or constraint?

  1. Changes in fraud frequency or exposure may invalidate an earlier authorized decision.
  2. A past approved acceptance remains valid regardless of changes in attack frequency or transaction size.
  3. An IT manager’s signature automatically satisfies financial risk authority established in corporate governance.
  4. Buying monitoring software eliminates the need to state residual exposure and review triggers.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Risk acceptance is a management decision about business impact rather than a unilateral IT override. The risk register names risk owner, quantified exposure, acceptance boundaries and review trigger.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Material exposure changes can exceed the original risk appetite and require reassessment.

C:

Authority must match the documented business risk decision rights.

D:

A control may reduce but not eliminate fraud risk or accountable acceptance.

Question 69

Management implemented a response after this event: Operations accepts a major payment-fraud residual risk even though only the product owner can sign business exposure. The response was: Escalate residual-risk treatment to the authorized business risk owner for time-bound documented acceptance. Which observed outcome BEST verifies that the intended security protection operates, rather than merely appearing in a plan?

  1. The security team closes the issue ticket without a named business risk owner or acceptance boundary.
  2. A monitoring vendor reports zero alerts, but no quantified exposure or reassessment trigger is recorded.
  3. A generic risk dashboard is green with no document naming the product owner’s decision.
  4. The risk register names risk owner, quantified exposure, acceptance boundaries and review trigger.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The risk register names risk owner, quantified exposure, acceptance boundaries and review trigger. Risk acceptance is a management decision about business impact rather than a unilateral IT override.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Ticket closure cannot demonstrate authorized management acceptance.

B:

Alert volume does not establish the scope of an accepted fraud risk.

C:

Aggregate status does not provide specific accountable approval of residual business loss.

Question 70

An organization estimates that a particular security incident would cost $200,000 and has an annualized occurrence rate of 0.25. For an initial quantitative risk comparison, what is the expected annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

  1. $50,000.
  2. $200,000.
  3. $800,000.
  4. $250,000.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

ALE is SLE × ARO. Here $200,000 × 0.25 = $50,000 expected loss per year. It is an estimate based on modeled frequency and impact, not a guaranteed annual invoice.

Incorrect Answers

B:

This is the single-loss expectancy (SLE) for one event, not the annualized value for an estimated quarter of an event per year.

C:

Dividing SLE by 0.25 reverses the annualization operation and overstates the modeled annual expectation.

D:

Adding an event rate to the cost is dimensionally invalid; annualized loss multiplies expected frequency by event loss.

Certified Information Systems Security Professional (CISSP) Practice Tests

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